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ERISA Bonding Requirement for Hedge Fund Managers

ERISA Fidelity Bond Information

Hedge fund managers who manages hedge funds which exceed the 25% ERISA threshold will need to purchase a fidelity bond.  The questions and answers below on the ERISA fidelity bonding requirements were prepared by the Department of Labor which is the governmental agency which is in charge of enforcing the ERISA laws and regulations.

The memorandum below can be found here.  We also have prepared a discussion on the costs of an ERISA fidelity bond.

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Date: November 25, 2008

Memorandum For: Virginia C. Smith
Director of Enforcement
Regional Directors

From: Robert J. Doyle
Director of Regulations and Interpretations

Subject: Guidance Regarding ERISA Fidelity Bonding Requirements

Background

ERISA section 412 and related regulations (29 C.F.R. § 2550.412-1 and 29 C.F.R. Part 2580) generally require that every fiduciary of an employee benefit plan and every person who handles funds or other property of such a plan shall be bonded. ERISA’s bonding requirements are intended to protect employee benefit plans from risk of loss due to fraud or dishonesty on the part of persons who ”handle” plan funds or other property. ERISA refers to persons who handle funds or other property of an employee benefit plan as “plan officials.” A plan official must be bonded for at least 10% of the amount of funds he or she handles, subject to a minimum bond amount of $1,000 per plan with respect to which the plan official has handling functions. In most instances, the maximum bond amount that can be required under ERISA with respect to any one plan official is $500,000 per plan. Effective for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2008, however, the maximum required bond amount is $1,000,000 for plan officials of plans that hold employer securities.(1)

Since enactment of ERISA, the Agency has provided various forms of guidance concerning the application of ERISA’s bonding requirements. Over the past several years, however, a number of questions have been raised by our Regional Offices and others concerning the bonding rules. In addition, amendments to section 412 that were enacted in the Pension Protection Act of 2006 (PPA) have presented questions concerning the application of those changes to plan fiduciaries and other persons handling plan funds or other property. This Bulletin provides guidance, in a question and answer format, for our Regional Offices concerning the application of ERISA’s bonding requirements and the PPA changes thereto. This Bulletin is not intended to address any civil or criminal liability that may result from losses to a plan caused by acts of fraud or dishonesty or violations of ERISA’s fiduciary provisions.

Questions And Answers

ERISA Fidelity Bonds

Q-1: What losses must an ERISA bond cover?

An ERISA section 412 bond (sometimes referred to as an ERISA fidelity bond) must protect the plan against loss by reason of acts of fraud or dishonesty on the part of persons required to be bonded, whether the person acts directly or through connivance with others. ERISA § 412; 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-1. The term “fraud or dishonesty” for this purpose encompasses risks of loss that might arise through dishonest or fraudulent acts in handling plan funds or other property. This includes, but is not limited to, larceny, theft, embezzlement, forgery, misappropriation, wrongful abstraction, wrongful conversion, willful misapplication, and other acts where losses result through any act or arrangement prohibited by 18 U.S.C. § 1954. The bond must provide recovery for loss occasioned by such acts even though no personal gain accrues to the person committing the act and the act is not subject to punishment as a crime or misdemeanor, provided that within the law of the state in which the act is committed, a court would afford recovery under a bond providing protection against fraud or dishonesty. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-9. Deductibles or other similar features that transfer risk to the plan are prohibited. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-11. [See also Bond Terms and Provisions, Q-26 through Q-30.]

Q-2: Is an ERISA fidelity bond the same thing as fiduciary liability insurance?

No. The fidelity bond required under section 412 of ERISA specifically insures a plan against losses due to fraud or dishonesty (e.g., theft) on the part of persons (including, but not limited to, plan fiduciaries) who handle plan funds or other property. Fiduciary liability insurance, on the other hand, generally insures the plan against losses caused by breaches of fiduciary responsibilities.

Fiduciary liability insurance is neither required by nor subject to section 412 of ERISA. Whether a plan purchases fiduciary liability insurance is subject, generally, to ERISA’s fiduciary standards, including section 410 of ERISA. ERISA section 410 allows, but does not require, a plan to purchase insurance for its fiduciaries or for itself covering losses occurring from acts or omissions of a fiduciary. Any such policy paid for by the plan must, however, permit recourse by the insurer against the fiduciary in the case of a fiduciary breach. In some cases, the fiduciary may purchase, at his or her expense, protection against the insurer’s recourse rights.

Q-3: Who are the parties to an ERISA fidelity bond?

In a typical bond, the plan is the named insured and a surety company is the party that provides the bond. The persons “covered” by the bond are the persons who “handle” funds or other property of the plan (i.e., plan officials). As the insured party, the plan can make a claim on the bond if a plan official causes a loss to the plan due to fraud or dishonesty. [See also Bond Terms and Provisions, Q-31 and Q-32.]

Q-4: Can I get an ERISA bond from any bonding or insurance company?

No. Bonds must be placed with a surety or reinsurer that is named on the Department of the Treasury’s Listing of Approved Sureties, Department Circular 570 (available at fms.treas.gov/c570/c570.html). 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-21, § 2580.412-23, § 2580.412-24. Under certain conditions, bonds may also be placed with the Underwriters at Lloyds of London. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-25, § 2580.412.26. In addition, neither the plan nor a party-in-interest with respect to the plan may have any control or significant financial interest, whether direct or indirect, in the surety, or reinsurer, or in an agent or broker through which the bond is obtained. ERISA § 412(c); 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-22 and §§ 2580.412-33 to 2580.412.36. If a surety becomes insolvent, is placed in receivership, or has its authority to act as an acceptable surety revoked, the administrator of any plan insured by the surety is responsible, upon learning of such facts, for securing a new bond with an acceptable surety. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-21(b).

Q-5: Who must be bonded?

Every person who “handles funds or other property” of an employee benefit plan within the meaning of 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-6 (i.e., a plan official) is required to be bonded unless covered under one of the exemptions in section 412 for certain banks, insurance companies, and registered brokers and dealers, or by one of the regulatory exemptions granted by the Department in its regulations. [See Exemptions From The Bonding Requirements, Q-12 through Q-15, Funds Or Other Property, Q-17, and Handling Funds Or Other Property, Q-18 through Q-21.] Plan officials will usually include the plan administrator and those officers and employees of the plan or plan sponsor who handle plan funds by virtue of their duties relating to the receipt, safekeeping and disbursement of funds. Plan officials may also include other persons, such as service providers, whose duties and functions involve access to plan funds or decision-making authority that can give rise to a risk of loss through fraud or dishonesty. Where a plan administrator, service provider, or other plan official is an entity, such as a corporation or association, ERISA’s bonding requirements apply to the natural persons who perform “handling” functions on behalf of the entity. See 29 C.F.R. § 2550.412-1(c), § 2580.412-3 and § 2580.412-6.

Q-6: Who is responsible for making sure that plan officials are properly bonded?

The responsibility for ensuring that plan officials are bonded may fall upon a number of individuals simultaneously. In addition to a plan official being directly responsible for complying with the bonding requirements in section 412(a) of ERISA, section 412(b) specifically states that it is unlawful for any plan official to permit any other plan official to receive, handle, disburse, or otherwise exercise custody or control over plan funds or other property without first being properly bonded in accordance with section 412. In addition, section 412(b) makes it unlawful for “any other person having authority to direct the performance of such functions” to permit a plan official to perform such functions without being bonded. Thus, by way of example, if a named fiduciary hires a trustee for a plan, the named fiduciary must ensure that the trustee is either subject to an exemption or properly bonded in accordance with section 412, even if the named fiduciary is not himself or herself required to be bonded because he or she does not handle plan funds or other property.

Q-7: Must all fiduciaries be bonded?

No. Fiduciaries must be bonded only if they “handle” funds or other property of an employee benefit plan and do not fall within one of the exemptions in section 412 or the regulations. [See also Exemptions From The Bonding Requirements, Q-12 through Q-15, and Handling Funds Or Other Property, Q-18 through Q-21.]

Q-8: Must service providers to the plan be bonded?

As noted above, only those persons who “handle” funds or other property of an employee benefit plan are required to be bonded under section 412. Therefore, a service provider, such as a third-party administrator or investment advisor, will be subject to bonding under section 412 only if that service provider “handles” funds or other property of an employee benefit plan. See 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-3(d), § 2580.412-4, § 2580.412-5 and § 2580.412-6. [See also Funds Or Other Property, Q-17, and Handling Funds Or Other Property, Q-18.]

Q-9: Must a person who renders investment advice to a plan be bonded solely by reason of rendering such investment advice?

No. A person who provides investment advice, but who does not exercise or have the right to exercise discretionary authority with respect to purchasing or selling securities or other property for the plan, is not required to be bonded solely by reason of providing such investment advice. If, however, in addition to rendering such investment advice, such person performs any additional functions that constitute “handling” plan funds or other property within the meaning of 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-6, then that person must be bonded in accordance with section 412. [See also Handling Funds Or Other Property, Q-18 through Q-21.]

Q-10: If a service provider is required to be bonded, must the plan purchase the bond?

No. A service provider can purchase its own separate bond insuring the plan, and nothing in ERISA specifically requires the plan to pay for that bond. If, on the other hand, a plan chooses to add a service provider to the plan’s existing bond, that decision is within the discretion of the plan fiduciaries. Regardless of who pays for the bond, section 412 provides that if a service provider to the plan is required to be bonded, the plan fiduciaries who are responsible for retaining and monitoring the service provider, and any plan officials who have authority to permit the service provider to perform handling functions, are responsible for ensuring that such service provider is properly bonded before he or she handles plan funds. ERISA § 412(b). [See also Q-6, above, and Form And Scope Of Bond, Q-22 and Q-25.]

Q-11: If the plan purchases a bond to meet section 412’s requirements, may the plan pay for the bond out of plan assets?

Yes. Because the purpose of ERISA’s bonding requirements is to protect employee benefit plans, and because such bonds do not benefit plan officials or relieve them from their obligations to the plan, a plan’s purchase of a proper section 412 bond will not contravene ERISA’s fiduciary provisions in sections 406(a) and 406(b). See 29 C.F.R. § 2509.75-5, FR-9.

Exemptions From The Bonding Requirements

Q-12: Do ERISA’s bonding requirements apply to all employee benefit plans?

No. The bonding requirements under ERISA section 412 do not apply to employee benefit plans that are completely unfunded or that are not subject to Title I of ERISA. ERISA § 412(a)(1); 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-1, § 2580.412-2.

Q-13: What plans are considered “unfunded” so as to be exempt from ERISA’s bonding requirements?

An unfunded plan is one that pays benefits only from the general assets of a union or employer. The assets used to pay the benefits must remain in, and not be segregated in any way from, the employer’s or union’s general assets until the benefits are distributed. Thus, a plan will not be exempt from ERISA’s bonding requirements as “unfunded” if:

  1. any benefits under the plan are provided or underwritten by an insurance carrier or service or other organization;
  2. there is a trust or other separate entity to which contributions are made or out of which benefits are paid;
  3. contributions to the plan are made by the employees, either through withholding or otherwise, or from any source other than the employer or union involved; or
  4. there is a separately maintained bank account or separately maintained books and records for the plan or other evidence of the existence of a segregated or separately maintained or administered fund out of which plan benefits are to be provided.

As a general rule, however, the presence of special ledger accounts or accounting entries for plan funds as an integral part of the general books and records of an employer or union will not, in and of itself, be deemed sufficient evidence of segregation of plan funds to take a plan out of the exempt category, but shall be considered along with the other factors and criteria discussed above in determining whether the exemption applies. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-1, § 2580.412-2.

As noted above, an employee benefit plan that receives employee contributions is generally not considered to be unfunded. Nevertheless, the Department treats an employee welfare benefit plan that is associated with a fringe benefit plan under Internal Revenue Code section 125 as unfunded, for annual reporting purposes, if it meets the requirements of DOL Technical Release 92-01,(2) even though it includes employee contributions. As an enforcement policy, the Department will treat plans that meet such requirements as unfunded for bonding purposes as well.

Q-14: Are fully-insured plans “unfunded” for purposes of ERISA’s bonding requirements?

No. As noted above, a plan is considered “unfunded” for bonding purposes only if all benefits are paid directly out of an employer’s or union’s general assets. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-2. Thus, insured plan arrangements are not considered “unfunded” and are not exempt from the bonding requirements in section 412 of ERISA. The insurance company that insures benefits provided under the plan may, however, fall within a separate exemption from ERISA’s bonding requirements. See ERISA § 412; 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-31, § 2580.412-32. In addition, if no one “handles” funds or other property of the insured plan, no bond will be required under section 412. For example, as described in 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-6(b)(7), in many cases contributions made by employers or employee organizations or by withholding from employees’ salaries are not segregated from the general assets of the employer or employee organization until paid out to purchase benefits from an insurance carrier, insurance service or other similar organization. No bonding is required with respect to the payment of premiums, or other payments made to purchase such benefits, directly from general assets, nor with respect to the bare existence of the contract obligation to pay benefits. Such insured arrangements would not normally be subject to bonding except to the extent that monies returned by way of benefit payments, cash surrender, dividends, credits or otherwise, and which by the terms of the plan belong to the plan (rather than to the employer, employee organization, or insurance carrier), were subject to “handling” by a plan official. [See also 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-5(b)(2); Q-15, below; and Handling Funds Or Other Property, Q-18.]

Q-15: Are there any other exemptions from ERISA’s bonding provisions for persons who handle funds or other property of employee benefit plans?

Yes. Both section 412 and the regulations found in 29 C.F.R. Part 2580 contain exemptions from ERISA’s bonding requirements. Section 412 specifically excludes any fiduciary (or any director, officer, or employee of such fiduciary) that is a bank or insurance company and which, among other criteria, is organized and doing business under state or federal law, is subject to state or federal supervision or examination, and meets certain capitalization requirements. ERISA § 412(a)(3). Section 412 also excludes from its requirements any entity which is registered as a broker or a dealer under section 15(b) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (SEA), 15 U.S.C. 78o(b), if the broker or dealer is subject to the fidelity bond requirements of a “self regulatory organization” within the meaning of SEA section 3(a)(26), 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(26). ERISA § 412(a)(2). As with section 412’s other statutory and regulatory exemptions, this exemption for brokers and dealers applies to both the broker-dealer entity and its officers, directors and employees.

In addition to the exemptions outlined in section 412, the Secretary has issued regulatory exemptions from the bonding requirements. These include an exemption for banking institutions and trust companies that are subject to regulation and examination by the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-27, § 2580.412-28. Unlike the exemption in section 412 for banks and trust companies, this regulatory exemption applies to banking institutions even if they are not fiduciaries to the plan, but it does not apply if the bank or trust company is subject only to state regulation.

The Department’s regulations also exempt any insurance carrier (or service or similar organization) that provides or underwrites welfare or pension benefits in accordance with state law. This exemption applies only with respect to employee benefit plans that are maintained for the benefit of persons other than the insurance carrier or organization’s own employees. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-31, § 2580.412-32. Unlike the exemption in section 412 for insurance companies, this regulatory exemption applies to insurance carriers even if they are not plan fiduciaries, but it does not apply to plans that are for the benefit of the insurance company’s own employees.

In addition to the exemptions described above, the Secretary has issued specific regulatory exemptions for certain savings and loan associations when they are the administrators of plans for the benefit of their own employees. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-29, § 2580.412-30.

Q-16: Are SEPs and SIMPLE IRAs subject to ERISA’s bonding requirements?

There is no specific exemption in section 412 for SEP (IRC § 408(k)) or SIMPLE IRA (IRC § 408(p)) retirement plans. Such plans are generally structured in such a way, however, that if any person does “handle” funds or other property of such plans that person will fall under one of ERISA’s financial institution exemptions. ERISA § 412; 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-27, § 2580.412-28.

Funds Or Other Property

Q-17: What constitutes “funds or other property” of the plan?

The term “funds or other property” generally refers to all funds or property that the plan uses or may use as a source for the payment of benefits to plan participants or beneficiaries. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-4. Thus, plan “funds or other property” include contributions from any source, including employers, employees, and employee organizations, that are received by the plan, or segregated from an employer or employee organization’s general assets, or otherwise paid out or used for plan purposes. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-5(b)(2). Plan “funds or other property” also include all items in the nature of quick assets, such as cash, checks and other negotiable instruments, government obligations, marketable securities, and all other property or items that are convertible into cash or have a cash value that are held or acquired for the ultimate purpose of distribution to plan participants or beneficiaries.

Plan “funds or other property” include all plan investments, even those that are not in the nature of quick assets, such as land and buildings, mortgages, and securities in closely-held corporations, although permanent assets that are used in operating the plan, such as land and buildings, furniture and fixtures, or office and delivery equipment used in the operation of the plan, are generally not considered to be “funds or other property” of the plan for bonding purposes. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-4. It is important to note, however, that ERISA’s bonding requirements apply only to persons who “handle” plan “funds or other property.” Whether a person is “handling” any given plan “funds or other property” so as to require bonding will depend on whether that person’s relationship to the property is such that there is a risk that the person, acting alone or in connivance with others, could cause a loss of such funds or other property though fraud or dishonesty. [See Handling Funds Or Other Property, Q-18.]

Handling Funds Or Other Property

Q-18: What does it mean to “handle” funds or other property of an employee benefit plan so as to require bonding under section 412?

The term “handling” carries a broader meaning than actual physical contact with “funds or other property” of the plan. A person is deemed to be “handling” funds or other property of a plan so as to require bonding whenever his duties or activities with respect to given funds or other property are such that there is a risk that such funds or other property could be lost in the event of fraud or dishonesty on the part of such person, whether acting alone or in collusion with others. Subject to this basic standard, the general criteria for determining “handling” include, but are not limited to:

  1. physical contact (or power to exercise physical contact or control) with cash, checks or similar property;
  2. power to transfer funds or other property from the plan to oneself or to a third party, or to negotiate such property for value (e.g., mortgages, title to land and buildings, or securities);
  3. disbursement authority or authority to direct disbursement;
  4. authority to sign checks or other negotiable instruments; or
  5. supervisory or decision-making responsibility over activities that require bonding.

29 C.F.R. 2580.412-6(b). [See also Funds Or Other Property, Q-17.]

“Handling” does not occur, on the other hand, and bonding is not required, under circumstances where the risk of loss to the plan through fraud or dishonesty is negligible. This may be the case where the risk of mishandling is precluded by the nature of the “funds or other property” at issue (e.g., checks, securities, or title papers that cannot be negotiated by the persons performing duties with respect to them), or where physical contact is merely clerical in nature and subject to close supervision and control. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-6(a)(2), § 2580.412-6(b)(1). In the case of persons with supervisory or decision-making responsibility, the mere fact of general supervision would not, necessarily, in and of itself, mean that such persons are “handling” funds so as to require bonding. Factors to be accorded weight are the system of fiscal controls, the closeness and continuity of supervision, and who is in fact charged with or actually exercising final responsibility for determining whether specific disbursements, investments, contracts, or benefit claims are bona fide and made in accordance with the applicable trust or other plan documents. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-6(b)(6). Again, the general standard for determining whether a person is “handling” plan funds or other property is whether the person’s relationship with respect those funds is such that he or she can cause a loss to the plan through fraud or dishonesty.

Q-19: If the plan provides that a plan committee has the authority to direct a corporate trustee, who has custody of plan funds, to pay benefits to plan participants, are the committee members “handling” plan funds or property?

Yes, if the committee’s decision to pay benefits is final and not subject to approval by someone else, the committee members are “handling” plan funds within the meaning of 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-6, and each committee member must be bonded.

Q-20: If the committee makes investment decisions for the plan, are the committee members “handling” plan funds or other property?

Yes, if the committee’s investment decisions are final and not subject to approval by someone else, the committee members are “handling” within the meaning of 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-6, and each committee member must be bonded.

Q-21: Are the committee members considered to be “handling” funds if the committee only recommends investments?

No, not if someone else is responsible for final approval of the committee’s recommendations. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-6.

Form And Scope Of Bond

Q-22: Do the regulations require that a bond take a particular form?

The Department’s regulations allow substantial flexibility regarding bond forms, as long as the bond terms meet the substantive requirements of section 412 and the regulations for the persons and plans involved. Examples of bond forms include: individual; name schedule (covering a number of named individuals); position schedule (covering each of the occupants of positions listed in the schedule); and blanket (covering the insured’s officers and employees without a specific list or schedule of those being covered). A combination of such forms may also be used. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-10.

A plan may be insured on its own bond or it can be added as a named insured to an existing employer bond or insurance policy (such as a “commercial crime policy”), so long as the existing bond is adequate to meet the requirements of section 412 and the regulations, or is made adequate through rider, modification or separate agreement between the parties. For example, if an employee benefit plan is insured on an employer’s crime bond, that bond might require an “ERISA rider” to ensure that the plan’s bonding coverage complies with section 412 and the Department’s regulations. Service providers may also obtain their own bonds, on which they name their plan clients as insureds, or they may be added to a plan’s bond by way of an “Agents Rider.” Choosing an appropriate bonding arrangement that meets the requirements of ERISA and the regulations is a fiduciary responsibility. See 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-10 and § 2580.412-20. [See also ERISA Fidelity Bonds, Q-3, Q-4, Q-10, and Bond Terms and Provisions, Q-26 through Q-34.]

Q-23: Can a bond insure more than one plan?

Yes. ERISA does not prohibit more than one plan from being named as an insured under the same bond. Any such bond must, however, allow for a recovery by each plan in an amount at least equal to that which would have been required for each plan under separate bonds. Thus, if a person covered under a bond has handling functions in more than one plan insured under that bond, the amount of the bond must be sufficient to cover such person for at least ten percent of the total amount that person handles in all the plans insured under the bond, up to the maximum required amount for each plan. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-16(c), § 2580.412-20. [See also Amount Of Bond, Q-35 through Q-42.]

Example: X is the administrator of two welfare plans run by the same employer and he “handled” $100,000 in the preceding reporting year for Plan A and $500,000 for Plan B. If both plans are insured under the same bond, the amount of the bond with respect to X must be at least $60,000, or ten percent of the total funds handled by X for both plans insured under the bond ($10,000 for Plan A plus $50,000 for Plan B).

Example: Y is covered under a bond that insures two separate plans, Plan A and Plan B. Both plans hold employer securities. Y handles $12,000,000 in funds for Plan A and $400,000 for Plan B. Accordingly, Plan A must be able to recover under the bond up to a maximum of $1,000,000 for losses caused by Y, and Plan B must be able to recover under the bond up to a maximum of $40,000 for losses caused by Y.

Q-24: If the bond insures more than one plan, can a claim by one plan reduce the amount of coverage available to other plans insured on the bond?

No. As noted above, when a bond insures more than one plan, the bond’s limit of liability must be sufficient to insure each plan as though such plan were bonded separately. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-16(c). Further, in order to meet the requirement that each plan insured on a multi-plan bond be protected, the bonding arrangement must ensure that payment of a loss sustained by one plan will not reduce the amount of required coverage available to other plans insured under the bond. This can be achieved either by the terms of the bond or rider to the bond, or by separate agreement among the parties concerned that payment of a loss sustained by one of the insureds shall not work to the detriment of any other plan insured under the bond with respect to the amount for which that plan is required to be insured. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-16(d), § 2580.412-18.

Q-25: Can a plan or service provider obtain bonds from more than one bonding company covering the same plan or plans?

Yes. Nothing in ERISA prohibits a plan from using more than one surety to obtain the necessary bonding, so long as the surety is an approved surety. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-21. Persons required to be bonded may be bonded separately or under the same bond, and any given plans may be insured separately or under the same bond. A bond may be underwritten by a single surety company or more than one surety company, either separately or on a co-surety basis. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-20. [See also ERISA Fidelity Bonds, Q-4.]

Bond Terms And Provisions

Q-26: Can a bond provide that the one-year “discovery period” required under section 412 will terminate upon the effective date of a replacement bond?

Yes, but only if the replacement bond provides the statutorily-required coverage that would otherwise have been provided under the prior bond’s one-year discovery period. If the replacement bond does not provide such coverage, the bonding arrangement does not meet the requirements of section 412.

ERISA requires that a plan have a one year period after termination of a bond to discover losses that occurred during the term of the bond. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-19(b). Some bonds, such as those written on a “loss sustained” basis, may contain a clause providing for such discovery period. Other bonds, such as those written on a “discovery basis,” may not contain such a clause, but may give the plan the right to purchase a one-year discovery period following termination or cancellation of the bond. In some instances, a prior bond and a replacement bond may work in conjunction to give the plan the required one-year discovery period. The surety industry has drafted standard bond forms that are intended to work together to provide the required coverage. Thus, both the terminating bond and the replacement bond should be examined to assure that the plan is properly insured against losses that were incurred during the term of the terminating bond, but not discovered until after it terminated.

Q-27: Can a bond exclude coverage for situations where an employer or plan sponsor “knew or should have known” that a theft was likely?

No. This exclusion is unacceptable in an ERISA fidelity bond because the plan is the insured party, not the employer or plan sponsor.

Q-28: My plan cannot obtain a bond covering a certain plan official who allegedly committed an act of fraud or dishonesty in the past. What should the plan do?

Many bonds contain provisions that exclude from coverage any persons known to have engaged in fraudulent or dishonest acts. A bond may also contain a provision that cancels coverage for any person who a plan official knows has engaged in any acts of dishonesty. In such cases, the plan must exclude any such person from handling plan funds or other property if he cannot obtain bonding coverage.

Q-29: If an employee benefit plan is added as a named insured to a company’s existing crime bond, which covers employees but specifically excludes the company owner, does the plan’s coverage under the crime bond satisfy the requirements of section 412?

If the crime bond excludes the company owner, and the owner handles plan funds, then the company bond does not fully protect the plan as required by ERISA section 412 and the Department’s regulations. The company owner would then need to be covered under a separate bond or, alternatively, if the crime bond has an ERISA rider, that rider must ensure that the company owner is not excluded from coverage with respect to the plan.

Q-30: Can the bond have a deductible?

No. Section 412 requires that the bond insure the plan from the first dollar of loss up to the maximum amount for which the person causing the loss is required to be bonded. Therefore, bonds cannot have deductibles or similar features whereby a portion of the risk required to be covered by the bond is assumed by the plan or transferred to a party that is not an acceptable surety on ERISA bonds. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-11. However, nothing in ERISA prohibits application of a deductible to coverage in excess of the maximum amount required under ERISA.

Q-31: Must the plan be named as an insured on the bond for the bond to satisfy ERISA’s requirements?

Yes. The plan whose funds are being handled must be specifically named or otherwise identified on the bond in such a way as to enable the plan’s representatives to make a claim under the bond in the event of a loss due to fraud or dishonesty. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-18.

Q-32: Can bonds use an “omnibus clause” to name plans as insureds?

Yes. An “omnibus clause” is sometimes used as an alternative way to identify multiple plans as insureds on one bond, rather than specifically naming on the bond each individual plan in a group of plans. By way of example, an omnibus clause might name as insured “all employee benefit plans sponsored by ABC company.” ERISA does not prohibit using an omnibus clause to name plans insured on a bond, as long as the omnibus clause clearly identifies the insured plans in a way that would enable the insured plans’ representatives to make a claim under the bond.

If an omnibus clause is used to name plans insured on a bond, the person responsible for obtaining the bond must ensure that the bond terms and limits of liability are sufficient to provide the appropriate amount of required coverage for each insured plan. [See Amount Of Bond Q-35 through Q-42.]

Q-33: May a bond be written for a period longer than one year?

Yes. Bonds may be for periods longer than one year, so long as the bond insures the plan for the statutorily-required amount. At the beginning of each plan year, the plan administrator or other appropriate fiduciary must assure that the bond continues to insure the plan for at least the required amount, that the surety continues to satisfy the requirements for being an approved surety, and that all plan officials are bonded. If necessary, the fiduciary may need to obtain appropriate adjustments or additional protection to assure that the bond will be in compliance for the new plan year. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-11, § 2580.412-19, § 2580.412-21.

Q-34: If a bond is issued for more than one year, is it acceptable to use an ERISA “inflation guard” provision with regard to the amount of the bond?

Yes. Nothing in section 412 or the regulations prohibits using an “inflation guard” provision in a bond to automatically increase the amount of coverage under a bond to equal the amount required under ERISA at the time a plan discovers a loss.

Amount Of Bond

Q-35: How much coverage must the bond provide?

Generally, each plan official must be bonded in an amount equal to at least 10% of the amount of funds he or she handled in the preceding year. The bond amount cannot, however, be less than $1,000, and the Department cannot require a plan official to be bonded for more than $500,000 ($1,000,000 for plans that hold employer securities) unless the Secretary of Labor (after a hearing) requires a larger bond. These amounts apply for each plan named on a bond in which a plan official has handling functions. ERISA § 412; 29 C.F.R. §§ 2580.412-11 through 2580.412-13, § 2580.412-16, § 2580.412-17. [See also Funds Or Other Property, Q-17 and Handling Funds Or Other Property, Q-18 through Q-21.]

Q-36: Can a bond be for an amount greater than $500,000, or $1,000,000 for plans that hold employer securities?

Yes. The Department’s regulations provide that bonds covering more than one plan may be required to be over $500,000 in order to meet the requirements of section 412 because persons covered by such a bond may have handling functions in more than one plan. The $500,000/$1,000,000 limitations for such persons apply only with respect to each separate plan in which those persons have such functions. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-16(e). The regulations also provide that the Secretary may prescribe a higher maximum amount for a bond, not exceeding 10 per cent of funds handled, but only after due notice and an opportunity for a hearing to all interested parties. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-11, § 2580.412-17. Further, although ERISA cannot require a plan to obtain a bond in excess of the statutory maximums (absent action by the Secretary, as noted above), nothing in section 412 precludes the plan from purchasing a bond for a higher amount. Whether a plan should purchase a bond in an amount greater than that required by section 412 is a fiduciary decision subject to ERISA’s prudence standards. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-20.

In addition to the general rule described above, if a plan’s fidelity bond is intended to meet both the bonding requirements under section 412 and the enhanced bond requirement under the Department’s small plan audit waiver regulation, 29 C.F.R. § 2520.104-46, that bond must meet the additional requirements under the audit waiver regulation. Pursuant to the audit waiver regulation, in order for a small plan to be exempt from ERISA’s requirement that plans be audited each year by an independent qualified public accountant, any person who handles “non-qualifying plan assets” within the meaning of 29 C.F.R. § 2520.104-46 must be bonded in an amount at least equal to 100% of the value of those non-qualifying assets if such assets constitute more than 5% of total plan assets. For more information on the audit waiver requirements under 29 C.F.R. § 2520.104-46, go to “Frequently Asked Questions On The Small Pension Plan Audit Waiver Regulation” at www.dol.gov/ebsa/faqs/faq_auditwaiver.html.

Q-37: If a person handles only $5,000 in one plan, so that 10% of the funds he handles is only $500, can the bond be in the amount of $500?

No. The minimum amount of a bond is $1,000, even if 10% of the amount of funds handled is less than $1,000. ERISA § 412; 29 C.F.R. 2580.412-11.

Q-38: Is every plan whose investments include employer securities subject to the increased maximum bond amount of $1,000,000?

No. Section 412(a), as amended by section 622 of the Pension Protection Act of 2006, provides that “[i]n the case of a plan that holds employer securities (within the meaning of section 407(d)(1)), this subsection shall be applied by substituting ‘$1,000,000’ for ‘$500,000’ each place it appears.” The Staff Report of the Joint Committee on Taxation contains a technical explanation of this provision, which states that “[a] plan would not be considered to hold employer securities within the meaning of this section where the only securities held by the plan are part of a broadly diversified fund of assets, such as mutual or index funds.”(3) Accordingly, it is the Department’s view that a plan is not considered to be holding employer securities, for purposes of the increased bonding requirement, merely because the plan invests in a broadly-diversified common or pooled investment vehicle that holds employer securities, but which is independent of the employer and any of its affiliates.

Q-39: Must a bond state a specific dollar amount of coverage?

No. There is no requirement in the regulations that a bond state a specific dollar amount of coverage, so long as the bond provides the required statutory amount per plan of at least 10% of funds handled, with minimum coverage of $1,000, for each plan official covered under the bond. For example, assume that X is the administrator of a welfare benefit plan for which he handled $600,000 in the preceding year. The bond may state that X is covered under the bond for the greater of $1,000 or 10% of funds handled, up to $500,000.

Q-40: My company’s plan has funds totaling $1,000,000, and nine employees of the plan sponsor each handle all of those funds. If all nine employees are covered under the same bond, for what amount must the bond be written?

ERISA requires that each of the nine plan officials handling the $1,000,000 be bonded for at least 10% of the amount of funds he or she handles, or $100,000, to protect the plan from losses caused by those plan officials, whether acting alone or in collusion with others. As noted in Q-39, bond amounts may be fixed either by referencing the statutory language of 10% of funds handled up to the required maximums, or by stating a specific dollar limit of coverage.

The bonding regulations allow flexibility in the form of bonds that can be used to insure the plan. Bond forms, such as individual, name schedule, position schedule, and blanket bonds, vary as to how persons covered under the bond are identified, how the bond amount is stated, and in the amount of recovery a plan can obtain for any single act of theft. 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-10. For example, name schedule bonds and position schedule bonds generally cover named individuals, or occupants of positions listed in the schedule, in amounts that are set opposite such names or positions. Blanket bonds, on the other hand, generally cover all of an insured’s officers and employees in a blanket penalty. The following examples illustrate how the differences between a blanket bond and a schedule bond might affect a plan’s recovery:

If a plan sponsor purchases a blanket bond on which the plan is a named insured, covering all of the plan sponsor’s officers and employees who handle the $1,000,000, the stated bond amount must be at least $100,000. That amount applies to each plan official covered under the bond. The bond terms, however, would generally specify that the $100,000 limit is an “aggregate penalty” which applies “per occurrence.” This means that if two of the bonded plan officials act together to steal $300,000 from the plan, that loss would generally be considered one “occurrence” for which the plan could recover only $100,000 under the bond. See 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-10(d)(1).

A schedule bond, on the other hand, gives separate coverage for each plan official covered under the bond, whether that person is named individually or covered under a named position. Thus, if the plan is insured on a schedule bond, and each named individual or position listed on the schedule is covered in the amount is $100,000, the net effect would be the same as though a separate bond were issued in the amount of $100,000 for each plan official covered under the bond. Unlike the blanket bond described above, these types of bonds generally do not limit recovery to an aggregate amount “per occurrence.” Accordingly, where, as in the above example, two plan officials act together to steal $300,000, the plan should be able to recover $200,000 under the schedule bond (i.e., $100,000 for each of the two named individuals who caused the loss to the plan). See 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-10(b) and (c).

Schedule bonds generally cost more than aggregate penalty blanket bonds with the same stated limits of liability ($100,000 in the above examples) because of the potential for a higher recovery under the schedule bond. Both aggregate penalty blanket bonds and schedule bonds are permissible forms of bonds if they otherwise meet the requirements of section 412 and the Department’s regulations. It is ultimately the responsibility of the plan fiduciary or plan official who is procuring the bond to ensure that the type and amount of the bond, together with its terms, limits, and exclusions, are both appropriate for the plan and provide the amount of coverage required under section 412.

Q-41: What happens if the amount of funds handled increases during the plan year after the bond is purchased—must the bond be updated during the plan year to reflect the increase?

No. The regulations require that, with respect to each covered person, the bond amount be fixed annually. The bond must be fixed or estimated at the beginning of the plan’s reporting year; that is, as soon after the date when such year begins as the necessary information from the preceding reporting year can practicably be ascertained. The amount of the bond must be based on the highest amount of funds handled by the person in the preceding plan year. ERISA § 412; 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-11, § 2580.412-14, § 2580.412-19.

Q-42: How can the plan set the bond amount if there is no preceding plan year from which to measure the amount of funds each person handled?

If the plan does not have a complete preceding reporting year from which to determine the amounts handled, the amount handled by persons required to be covered by a bond must be estimated using the procedures described in the Department’s regulation at 29 C.F.R. § 2580.412-15.

Questions concerning this guidance can be directed to the Division of Coverage, Reporting and Disclosure, Office of Regulations and Interpretations, at 202.693.8523.

Footnotes

  1. Pension Protection Act of 2006, Pub. L. No. 109-280, 120 Stat. 780 (2006).
  2. 57 Fed. Reg. 23272 (June 2, 1992) and 58 Fed. Reg. 45359 (August 27, 1993).
  3. Joint Committee on Taxation, Technical Explanation of H.R. 4, the “Pension Protection Act of 2006,” as Passed by the House on July 28, 2006, and as Considered by the Senate on August 3, 2006 (JCX-38-06), Aug. 3, 2006.

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Bart Mallon, Esq. of Cole-Frieman & Mallon LLP runs Hedge Fund Law Blog.  Mr. Mallon’s legal practice is devoted to helping emerging and start up hedge fund managers successfully launch a hedge fund.  If you are a hedge fund manager who is looking to start a hedge fund or if you are a current hedge fund manager with questions about ERISA, please contact us or call Mr. Mallon directly at 415-868-5345.  Other related hedge fund law articles include:

Proposed Hedge Fund Registration Bill Now Excludes VC Funds

Venture Capital Funds May Not Have to Register with Hedge Funds

While hedge funds have reluctantly resigned to the likely fate of SEC registration (see MFA Supports Registration), the venture capital community has been fighting hard to remain unregistered.  On this front, the VC community enjoyed a victory last week as Congressman Paul E. Kanjorski (D-PA) proposed an amendment to the Obama administration’s Private Fund Investment Advisers Registration Act of 2009 (“PFIARA”).  The new proposed bill provides an exemption from registration for certain managers to “venture capital funds” as that term will be defined by the SEC.  The following section provides the full wording of the new exemption and I end this posts with some of my thoughts on this exemption.

Venture Capital Fund Registration Exemption

The following section has replaced the previous section 6 (which now becomes section 7).  Besides this change the PFIARA remains the same.

SEC. 6. EXEMPTION OF AND REPORTING BY VENTURE CAPITAL FUND ADVISERS.

Section 203 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-3) is amended by adding at the end the following new subsection:

‘‘(l) EXEMPTION OF AND REPORTING BY VENTURE  CAPITAL FUND ADVISERS.—The Commission shall identify and define the term ‘venture capital fund’ and shall provide an adviser to such a fund an exemption from the registration requirements under this section. The Commission shall require such advisers to maintain such records and provide to the Commission such annual or other reports as the Commission determines necessary or appropriate in the public interest or for the protection of investors.’’.

Discussion of the Exemption

From a political perspective, I am actually pretty surprised that this was added to the bill.  First, I find it interesting that a bill named the “Private Fund” registration act (not “Hedge Fund” registration act) would then exempt certain private funds.  Second, it is curious that the drafter left it to the SEC to create a definition of “venture capital fund” – it will be interesting to see how the SEC interprets this Congressional mandate.  Finally, it is also curious that VC funds are specifically exempted and potentially not private equity funds.  Generally VC funds are regarded as a type of private equity fund – presumably the SEC could fix this by creating a very broad definition for “venture capital funds” which would also include private equity.  Unfortunately this puts the SEC in a difficult position as they will now have to deal with the politics of creating definitions.

We will keep you up to date on this and other bills. Please also remember that this current version of the bill is subject to future change.

For the full proposed bill, please see: Hedge Fund Registration Bill – No VC Registration

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10/1/09: Kanjorski Releases Financial Reform Drafts on Investor Protection, Private Advisor Registration

Capital Markets Chairman Addresses Key Pieces of Financial Regulatory Reform Through Comprehensive Bills and Administration Input

WASHINGTON – Congressman Paul E. Kanjorski (D-PA), Chairman of the House Financial Services Subcommittee on Capital Markets, Insurance, and Government Sponsored Enterprises, today released discussion drafts of three pieces of legislation aimed at tackling key parts of reforming the regulatory structure of the U.S. financial services industry.  The draft bills include the Investor Protection Act, the Private Fund Investment Advisers Registration Act, and the Federal Insurance Office Act.

Chairman Kanjorski introduced bipartisan legislation earlier this year and in the last Congress to create a federal insurance office, which was backed by the Obama Administration and included in its proposals for financial services regulatory reform.  Congresswoman Judy Biggert (R-IL), Ranking Member of the House Financial Services Subcommittee on Oversight and Investigations, joined as an original co-sponsor of the 2009 bill when it was first introduced.  Chairman Kanjorski also worked to revise and significantly enhance the Investor Protection Act and the Private Fund Investment Advisers Registration Act proposed by the Obama Administration this summer.

“Today, we take another step forward in overhauling the regulatory structure of the financial services industry,” said Chairman Kanjorski.  “With these three bills we will address many of the shortcomings and loopholes laid bare by the current financial crisis.  The Investor Protection Act will better protect investors and increase the funding and enforcement powers of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission.  We must ensure that investor confidence continues to increase for the betterment of our financial system.

“Additionally, we need to ensure that everyone who swims in our capital markets has an annual pool pass.  The Private Fund Investment Advisers Registration Act will force many more financial providers to register with the SEC.  Many financial firms skirt government oversight and get away like bandits, but now the advisers to hedge funds, private equity firms, and other private pools of capital would become subject to more scrutiny by the SEC.

“Finally, bipartisan legislation which I first introduced in the last Congress to create a federal insurance office to fill a gap in the federal government’s knowledge base on financial activities.  For several years, including in this Congress, I have worked to advance bipartisan legislation to address this issue, and I am pleased that the Administration also understands the need for this office and welcome the refinements they suggested to my bill.”

Summaries of the three legislative discussion drafts follow:

Private Fund Investment Advisers Registration Act

Everyone Registers. Sunlight is the best disinfectant. By mandating the registration of private advisers to hedge funds and other private pools of capital, regulators will better understand exactly how those entities operate and whether their actions pose a threat to the financial system as a whole.

Better Regulatory Information. New recordkeeping and disclosure requirements for private advisers will give regulators the information needed to evaluate both individual firms and entire market segments that have until this time largely escaped any meaningful regulation, without posing undue burdens on those industries.

Level the Playing Field. The advisers to hedge funds, private equity firms, single-family offices, and other private pools of capital will have to obey some basic ground rules in order to continue to play in our capital markets. Regulators will have authority to examine the records of these previously secretive investment advisers.

http://kanjorski.house.gov/index.php?option=com_content&task=view&id=1627&Itemid=1

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THE NATIONAL VENTURE CAPITAL ASSOCIATION APPLAUDS VENTURE CAPITAL EXEMPTION LANGUAGE IN DRAFT OF PRIVATE FUND INVESTMENT ADVISERS REGISTRATION ACT

Washington D.C., October 1, 2009 —

The following statement is attributed to Mark G. Heesen, president of the National Venture Capital Association:

“The National Venture Capital Association (NVCA) applauds the Private Fund Investment Advisers Registration Act proposal announced today by Representative Paul Kanjorski (DPA), Chairman of the House Financial Services Capital Markets Subcommittee. We are extremely appreciative of the work done in drafting this legislation by the Subcommittee and Members of the full Committee under the leadership of Chairman Barney Frank (DMA). This proposal recognizes that venture capital firms do not pose systemic financial risk and that requiring them to register under the Advisers Act would place an undue burden on the venture industry and the entrepreneurial community. The venture capital industry supports a level of transparency which gives policy makers ongoing comfort in assessing risk. The NVCA is committed to working with Congress, the SEC and the Administration on the most effective implementation of this proposal.

We look forward to sharing specific thoughts with Members of the Committee on Tuesday, October 6 when NVCA Chairman Terry McGuire is scheduled to testify at the hearing, “Capital Markets Regulatory Reform: Strengthening Investor Protection, Enhancing Oversight of Private Pools of Capital, and Creating a National Insurance Office.” The National Venture Capital Association (NVCA) represents more than 400 venture capital firms in the United States. NVCA’s mission is to foster greater understanding of the importance of venture capital to the U.S. economy and support entrepreneurial activity and innovation. According to a 2009 Global Insight study, venture-backed companies accounted for 12.1 million jobs and $2.9 trillion in revenue in the United States in 2006.

The NVCA represents the public policy interests of the venture capital community, strives to maintain high professional standards, provides reliable industry data, sponsors professional development, and facilitates interaction among its members. For more information about the NVCA, please visit www.nvca.org.

http://www.house.gov/apps/list/press/financialsvcs_dem/discussion_draft_of_the_private_fund_investment_advisors_registration_act.pdf

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Bart Mallon, Esq. of Cole-Frieman & Mallon LLP runs hedge fund law blog and has written most all of the articles which appear on this website.  Mr. Mallon’s legal practice is devoted to helping emerging and start up hedge fund managers successfully launch a hedge fund.  Cole-Frieman & Mallon LLP helps hedge fund managers to register as investment advisors with the SEC or the state securities divisions.  If you are a hedge fund manager who is looking to start a hedge fund or register as an investment advisor, please contact us or call Mr. Mallon directly at 415-296-8510.  Other related hedge fund law articles include:

IA Compliance Fall Conference 2009

Over the past few months I have written extensively about the new regulatory environment and the likelihood that many hedge fund managers will need to register with the SEC within the next year or so (assuming that Congress passes one of many proposed registration bills).  Anticipating this requirement, my team and I at Cole-Frieman & Mallon LLP have been preparing for registrations and as part of that preparation I am attending the IA Compliance Fall Conference today at the Loews Philadelphia Hotel.

The conferne is designed to provide lawyers and compliance professionals with more context on how firms need to deal with compliance issues in this hype-sensitive environment.  Today’s conference hosts a number of renowned speakers, including top SEC officials:

  • John Walsh – SEC’s Office of Compliance Inspectrions and Examinations
  • Gene Gohlke – OCIE’s Associate Director
  • Andrew Donohue – director of the SEC’s Division of Investment Management

There are a number of items on the adgenda which I am particularly excited to hear about and discuss with my colleagues including some of the hot-button issues and recent reports from SEC examinations.  I will be taking notes throughout the event and will be writing blog posts about the conference in the coming days.  I will also be providing more information on Mallon P.C.’s investment adviser registration and compliance services for hedge fund managers.

Other attendees include representatives from: The Carlyle Group; Westover Capital Advisors, LLC; Oppenheimer Funds, Inc; State Street; Penbrook Management, LLC; Trilogy Capital; Bridgewater Associates; AXA Investment Managers; Strategic Value Partners, LLC; Pershing Square Capital Management; Guggenheim Advisors, LLC; Lone Pine Capital; Parkway Advisors; Vicis Capital LLC; The Swathmore Group; Abbott Capital Management, LLC; Redwood Investments; Tocqueville Asset Management; RNK Capital LLC among others.

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Please contact us if you have any questions or would like to start a hedge fund. Other related hedge fund law articles include:

Bart Mallon, Esq. runs hedge fund law blog and has written most all of the articles which appear on this website.  Mr. Mallon’s legal practice is devoted to helping emerging and start up hedge fund managers successfully launch a hedge fund.  If you are a hedge fund manager who is looking to start a hedge fund, or if you have questions about investment adviser registration with the SEC or state securities commission, please call Mr. Mallon directly at 415-296-8510.

Section 13(d) Filings and Section 13(g) Filings

Section 13(d) of the Securities Act of 1934 requires any person who beneficially owns 5% or more of a class of equity securities of a publicly traded company to file a report with the SEC within 10 days of reaching the 5% ownership threshold.  SEC Rule 13d-1 provides more detailed guidance on the reporting requirements.

Generally those persons who are subject to this rule will need to file a Schedule 13D (discussed in greater detail below) with the SEC.  Because Schedule 13D is fairly detailed (the SEC estimates that it will take 14.5 hours to complete the form), the SEC has provided an alternate form and alternate reporting procedures for those persons who acquire 5% but who are generally not purchasing the securities with the purpose nor with the effect of changing or influencing the control of the issuer.

Schedule 13D

The following discussion is from the SEC website and can be found here.

Schedule 13D is commonly referred to as a “beneficial ownership report.” The term “beneficial owner” is defined under SEC rules. It includes any person who directly or indirectly shares voting power or investment power (the power to sell the security).

When a person or group of persons acquires beneficial ownership of more than 5% of a voting class of a company’s equity securities registered under Section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, they are required to file a Schedule 13D with the SEC. (Depending upon the facts and circumstances, the person or group of persons may be eligible to file the more abbreviated Schedule 13G in lieu of Schedule 13D.)

Schedule 13D reports the acquisition and other information within ten days after the purchase. The schedule is filed with the SEC and is provided to the company that issued the securities and each exchange where the security is traded. Any material changes in the facts contained in the schedule require a prompt amendment. The schedule is often filed in connection with a tender offer.

You can find the Schedules 13D for most publicly traded companies in the SEC’s EDGAR database. You can learn how to use EDGAR to find information about companies. You can find an HTML version of the Schedule and download a PDF version for easier printing.

Schedule 13G Filing Categories

As discussed above, there is an alternative to the Schedule D filing requirement if the hedge fund manager falls within certain categories desicribed below.  If the manager does fall within these categories, the manager can file the less onerous Schedule 13G.

Rule 13d-1(b) – provides that Schedule G can be filed, in lieu of filing Schedule D, within 45 days of the end of the calendar year in which the 5% threshold was exceeded if: (i) generally the person has not acquired the securities with any purpose, or with the effect of, changing or influencing the control of the issuer and (ii) the person is one of a number of enumerated persons (i.e. broker-dealers, registered investment advisors, investment companies, etc).

Rule 13d-1(c) – provides that Schedule G can be filed, in lieu of filing Schedule D, within 10 days of the date which the 5% threshold was exceeded if: (i) generally the person has not acquired the securities with any purpose, or with the effect of, changing or influencing the control of the issuer; (ii) the person is not a certain enumerated person; and (iii) the person does not directly or indirectly own 20% or more of the class of equity securities.

Rule 13d-1(d) – requires Schedule G be filed within 45 days after the end of the calendar year in which the 5% threshold was exceeded if the person meets certain requirements.

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Please contact us if you have any questions or if you are interested in starting a hedge fund. Other related hedge fund law articles include:

Bart Mallon, Esq. runs hedge fund law blog and has written most all of the articles which appear on this website.  Mr. Mallon’s legal practice is devoted to helping emerging and start up hedge fund managers successfully launch a hedge fund.  If you are a hedge fund manager who is looking to start a hedge fund, or if you have questions about the Schedule D or Schedule G filing process, please call Mr. Mallon directly at 415-296-8510.

Investment Advisory Fees | Hedge Fund Performance Fees and Management Fees

Review of State Investment Advisory Fee Rules

One of the things I have tried to emphasize within this blog is that there is no “one size fits all” legal solution to hedge fund formation.  Each client/manager has a unique set of circumstances and will be subject to a potentially different sets of laws or regulations depending on those circumstances.  This is especially true with regard to those managers who must register in a state that requires hedge fund manager registration.  Because no two sets of state laws and regulations are the same, the manager must make sure that he understands the rules which are specific to his state.

High Asset Management Fees and Disclosure

One issue which comes up every now and again is whether or not disclosure will be required when the manager charges an annual asset management fee in excess of 3% of AUM.  Generally regulators will require that certain disclosures be made to investors through the manager’s disclosure documents (generally in both the Form ADV and the hedge fund offering documents).  Sometimes the regulator will require such disclosures based on a general provision (see CO IA fee rule discussion below) or on more explicit provisions (see 116.13(a) of the Texas Administrative Code).  In either case managers will generally be required to make a prominent disclosure to investors that a 3% (or higher) annual asset management fee is in excess of industry norms and that similar advisory services may be obtained for less (whether or not this is true).  While such a disclosure would, in most instances, be a best practice, managers should be aware that it may also be required if they are registered with a particular state.

State Performance Fee Rules

Like management fee disclosures, the rules for performance fees may differ based on the state of registration.  For example, here are how four different states deal with performance fee issue:

Texas – Like most states, Texas allows state-registered investment advisers to charge performance fees only to those investors in a fund which are “qualified clients” as defined in Rule 205-3 of the Investment Advisers Act. This means that a hedge fund manager can only charge performance fees to investors in the fund which have a $1.5 million net worth or who have $750,000 of AUM with the manager (can be in the fund and through other accounts).  See generally  116.13(b) of the Texas Administrative Code reprinted below.

New Jersey – Many states adopted laws and regulations based on the 1956 version of the Uniform Securities Act and have yet to make the most recent update to their laws and regulations (generally those found in the 2002 version of the Uniform Securities Act).  Under the New Jersey laws a manager can charge performance fees to those clients with a $1 million net worth.

Indiana – similar to New Jersey, Indiana has laws which allow a manager to charge performance fees to those investors with a $1 million  net worth.  Additionally, Indiana allows a manager to charge performance fees or to those investors who have $500,000 of AUM with the manager (can be in the hedge fund and through other separately managed accounts).  Indiana also has an interesting provision which specifies the manner in which the performance fee may be calculated – it requires that the fee be charged on a period of no less than one year.  This rule is based on an earlier version of SEC Rule 205-3.  What this means, essentially, is that managers who are registered in Indiana cannot charge quarterly performance fees, but must charge their performance fees only on an annual basis (or longer).

Michigan – Unlike any other state, Michigan actually forbids all performance fees for Michigan-registered investment advisors.  The present statute is probably an unintended consequence of some sloppy drafting.  Nonetheless, it is a regulation on the books.  Hedge Fund Managers registered with Michigan, however, should see the bright spot – Michigan is in the process of updating its securities laws and regulations.  This means that sometime in late 2009 or early 2010 it should be legal for investment advisors in Michigan to charge their clients a performance fee under certain circumstances (likely to mirror the SEC rules).

New York – Sometimes, states will have some wacky rules.  In the case of New York, there are no rules regarding performance fees.

Other Issues

With regard to performance fees, the other issue which should be discussed with your hedge fund lawyer is whether or not the state “looks through” to the underlying investor to determine “qualified client” status.  Generally most states will follow the SEC rule on this issue and look through the fund to the underlying investors to make this determination.

While these cases are just a couple of examples of the disparate treatment of similarly situated managers, they serve as a reminder that investment advisor (and securities) laws may differ wildly from jurisdiction to jurisdiction.  Managers should be aware of the possibility of completely different laws and should be ready to discuss the issue with legal counsel.

The various rules discussed above have been reprinted below.

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Texas Rule

The full text of the Texas IA fee rules can be found here and are copied below.

§116.13.Advisory Fee Requirements.

(a) Any registered investment adviser who wishes to charge 3.0% or greater of the assets under management must disclose that such fee is in excess of the industry norm and that similar advisory services can be obtained for less.

(b) Any registered investment adviser who wishes to charge a fee based on a share of the capital gains or the capital appreciation of the funds or any portion of the funds of a client must comply with SEC Rule 205-3 (17 Code of Federal Regulations §275.205-3), which prohibits the use of such fee unless the client is a “qualified client.” In general, a qualified client may include:

(1) a natural person or company who at the time of entering into such agreement has at least $750,000 under the management of the investment adviser;

(2) a natural person or company who the adviser reasonably believes at the time of entering into the contract:  (A) has a net worth of jointly with his or her spouse of more than $1,500,000; or (B) is a qualified purchaser as defined in the Investment Company Act of 1940, §2(a)(51)(A) (15 U.S.C. 80a-2(51)(A)); or

(3) a natural person who at the time of entering into the contract is: (A) An executive officer, director, trustee, general partner, or person serving in similar capacity of the investment adviser; or (B) An employee of the investment adviser (other than an employee performing solely clerical, secretarial, or administrative functions with regard to the investment adviser), who, in connection with his or her regular functions or duties, participates in the investment activities of such investment adviser, provided that such employee has been performing such functions and duties for or on behalf of the investment adviser, or substantially similar function or duties for or on behalf of another company for at least 12 months.

CO Rule

The full text of the Colorado laws and regulations can be found here.  The fee discussion is reprinted below.

51-4.8(IA) Dishonest and Unethical Conduct

Introduction

A person who is an investment adviser or an investment adviser representative is a fiduciary and has a duty to act primarily for the benefit of its clients. While the extent and nature of this duty varies according to the nature of the relationship between an investment adviser and its clients and the circumstances of each case, an investment adviser or investment adviser representative shall not engage in dishonest or unethical conduct including the following:

J. Charging a client an advisory fee that is unreasonable in light of the type of services to be provided, the experience of the adviser, the sophistication and bargaining power of the client, and whether the adviser has disclosed that lower fees for comparable services may be available from other sources.

New Jersey

The full text of the New Jersey performance fee rules can be found here and are copied below.

13:47A-2.10 Performance fee compensation

(b) The client entering into the contract subject to this regulation must be a natural person or a company as defined in Rule 205-3, who the registered investment advisor (and any person acting on the investment advisor’s behalf) entering into the contract reasonably believes, immediately prior to entering into the contract, is a natural person or a company as defined in Rule 205-3, whose net worth at the time the contract is entered into exceeds $1,000,000. The net worth of a natural person shall be as defined by Rule 205-3 of the Investment Advisors Act of 1940.

http://www.njconsumeraffairs.gov/bos/bosregs.htm

Indiana

The Indiana rule can be found here and is reprinted below.

(f) The client entering into the contract must be either of the following:

(1) A natural person or a company who immediately after entering into the contract has at least five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000) under the management of the investment adviser.

(2) A person who the investment adviser and its investment adviser representatives reasonably believe, immediately before entering into the contract, is a natural person or a company whose net worth, at the time the contract is entered into, exceeds one million dollars ($1,000,000). The net worth of a natural person may include assets held jointly with that person’s spouse.

Michigan

The current law (until October 1, 2009) can be found here and is copied below.

451.502 Investment adviser; unlawful practices.

(b) It is unlawful for any investment adviser to enter into, extend, or renew any investment advisory contract unless it provides in writing all of the following:

(1) That the investment adviser shall not be compensated on the basis of a share of capital gains upon or capital appreciation of the funds or any portion of the funds of the client.

New York

No laws regarding performance fees for state registered investment advisers.

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Please contact us if you have any questions or would like to start a hedge fund. Other related hedge fund law articles include:

Bart Mallon, Esq. runs hedge fund law blog and has written most all of the articles which appear on this website.  Mr. Mallon’s legal practice, Cole-Frieman & Mallon LLP, is devoted to helping emerging and start up hedge fund managers successfully launch a hedge fund.  If you are a hedge fund manager who is looking to start a hedge fund, please call Mr. Mallon directly at 415-296-8510.

California Investment Advisor FAQ

California Based Hedge Fund Managers Receive Answers to Common Questions

As I have discussed many times before, each state securities division has different rules and regulations.  In addition, each state has different interpretations of those rules and regulations. This makes it difficult for hedge fund managers to really know exactly what is required in each state unless they have representation from a specialized compliance group or hedge fund attorney.  Many securities regulators, also, do not completely understand their own rule and regulations and are not able to provide any sort of practicle advice to hedge fund managers regarding their obligations.  While not surprising, this lack of ability to provide general straight-forward answers to managers is what creates the need for specialized advice.  Some states however are recognizing that there are common questions which arise and that it makes sense to provide answers to those common questions and the FAQ below, provided by the California State Securities Regulation Division is a step in the right direction towards increasing the dialogue between regulators and market participants.

The following summary is also very helpful for manager because it discusses some of the nuances of California law as it relates to investment advisors who are also hedge fund managers.  Specifically the FAQ below deals with the issue of “custody,” the net worth requirements and the 120% net worth.  Also discussed is the “gatekeeper” issue (also known as the independant secondary signer service).

The entire text of the FAQ is reprinted below.  Please see below for additional hedge fund articles and please also see our guide to state hedge fund laws.

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1) What responsibilities do I have as an investment adviser?

As an investment adviser, you are a “fiduciary” to your advisory clients. This means that you have a fundamental obligation to act in the best interests of your clients and to provide investment advice in your clients’ best interests. You owe your clients a duty of undivided loyalty and utmost good faith. You should not engage in any activity in conflict with the interest of any client, and you should take steps reasonably necessary to fulfill your obligations. You must employ reasonable care to avoid misleading clients and you must provide full and fair disclosure of all material facts to your clients and prospective clients.

So, what is considered material? Generally, facts are “material” if a reasonable investor would consider them to be important. It is something a client would want to consider in determining whether to hire the adviser or follow the adviser’s recommendations. You must eliminate, or at least disclose, all conflicts of interest that might incline you to render advice that is not in the best interest of the client. If you do not avoid a conflict of interest that could impact the impartiality of your advice, you must make full and frank disclosure of the conflict. You cannot use your clients’ assets for your own benefit or the benefit of other clients. Departure from this fiduciary standard may constitute “fraud” upon your clients.

2) How are “assets under management” determined?

In determining the amount of your assets under management, include the securities portfolios for which you provide continuous and regular supervisory or management services as of the date of filing Form ADV. You provide continuous and regular supervisory or management services with respect to an account if:

(1)  You have discretionary authority over and provide ongoing supervisory or management services  with respect to the account; or

(2)  You do not have discretionary authority over the account, but you have an ongoing  responsibility to select or make recommendations, based upon the needs of the client, as to  specific securities or other investments the account may purchase or sell and, if such  recommendations are accepted by the client, you are responsible for arranging or effecting the  purchase or sale.

Other factors: You should also consider the following factors in evaluating whether you provide  continuous and regular supervisory or management services to an account:

(a)Terms of the advisory contract.
If you agree in an advisory contract to provide ongoing management services, this suggests that  you provide these services for the account. Other provisions in the contract, or your actual  management practices, however, may suggest otherwise.

(b)Form of compensation.
If you are compensated based on the average value of the client’s assets you manage over a  specified period of time, this suggests that you provide continuous and regular supervisory or  management services for the account.
If you receive compensation in a manner similar to either of the following, this suggests you do  not provide continuous and regular supervisory or management services for the account:

(a) You are compensated based upon the time spent with a client during a client visit; or
(b) You are paid a retainer based on a percentage of assets covered by a financial plan.

(3)Management practices.

The extent to which you actively manage assets or provide advice bears on whether the services  you provide are continuous and regular supervisory or management services. The fact that you  make infrequent trades (e.g., based on a “buy and hold” strategy) does not mean your services  are not “continuous and regular.”

3) Our firm is registered with the SEC or another state. Must we also register with the Department of Corporations?

SEC registered advisers with more than five clients who are residents of California must make a notice filing with the Department.

Other states registered investment advisers with a place of business in this state or more than five clients who are residents of California must also registered with the Department.

4) How does a firm convert from being a state-registered to an SEC-registered investment adviser or vice versa?

From State to SEC: To convert from being a state-registered adviser to being an SEC-registered adviser on the IARD system, mark the filing type “Apply for registration as an investment adviser with the SEC.” After the SEC approves your registration you should file a “Partial ADV-W” to withdraw your state registration(s). Do not file your Partial ADV-W until your application for SEC registration is approved or you will be unregistered and may be unable to conduct your business during this period of time.

From SEC to State: To convert from being a SEC-registered adviser to being a state-registered adviser, mark the filing type “Apply for registration as an investment adviser with one or more states.” After your state registration has been approved, then you should file a “Partial ADV-W” to withdraw your SEC registration. Do not file your Partial ADV-W until your state registration application(s) is approved by the Department or you will be unregistered and cannot conduct your business during this period of time.

5) What is an “investment adviser representative?”

An investment adviser representative (“IAR”), sometimes referred to as a registered adviser (“RA”), or associated person is defined in Code Section 25009.5(a) as any partner, officer, director of (or a person occupying a similar status or performing similar functions) or other individual, except clerical or ministerial personnel, who is employed by or associated with, or subject to the supervision and control of, an investment adviser that has obtained a certificate or that is required to obtain a certificate under this law, and who:

(1) Makes any recommendations or otherwise renders advice regarding securities,
(2) Manages accounts or portfolios of clients,
(3) Determines which recommendations or advice regarding securities should be given,
(4) Solicits, offers, or negotiates for the sale or sells investment advisory services, or
(5) Supervises employees who perform any of the foregoing.

Important: Each officer, director or partner exercising executive responsibility (or persons occupying a similar status or performing similar functions) or each person who owns 25% or more is presumed to be acting as an IAR or associated person.

6) I have an investment adviser representative who performs advisory services on behalf of my firm and is under my supervision. Does the investment adviser representative need to be registered with the Department?

Yes, investment adviser representatives must be registered with the Department if they have a place of business in California.

Important: This applies to both state (California and other states) and SEC registered investment advisers. Investment adviser representatives located in California or who have clients who are residents of California (whether they work for SEC, other states, or California’s registered investment adviser firms), must be registered with the Department.

7) How does my firm register individuals and what are the employment requirements?

Firms register individuals by completing Form U-4 through the electronic Central Registration Depository (“CRD”). Upon employment of an individual as an IAR, the investment adviser must obtain a properly executed Form U-4, evidence that the IAR meets the qualification requirements of CCR §260.236, and have the responsibility and duty to ascertain by reasonable investigation the good character, business reputation, qualifications, and experience of an individual upon employment or engagement as an IAR.

8) What are the qualification requirements for investment adviser representatives?

Each IAR, except those employed or engaged by an investment adviser solely to offer or negotiate for the sale of investment adviser services, must qualify by passing the examination(s) as specified in CCR §260.236(a). The examination requirements are the Uniform Investment Adviser Law Examination (“2000 Series 65”) passed on or after January 1, 2000; or the General Securities Representative Examination (“Series 7”) and Uniform Combined State Law Examination (“2000 Series 66”). Waivers and exemptions to the examination requirements may be found in subsection (b) and (c) of CCR §260.236, respectively. Individuals who hold in good standing an approved professional designation meet the exemption found in (c)(3) of CCR §260.236.

When a U-4 is filed to register someone as an IAR, the CRD will automatically open a Series 65 exam window if the individual is not shown as already having passed the exam, is not already licensed by another jurisdiction, or does not qualify for an automatic exam waiver.

9) What are the filing requirements for a firm who has an investment adviser representative?

(1) Employment –

Upon employment of an IAR, Form U-4, including any Disclosure Reporting  Page(s), should  be completed in accordance with the form instructions. The form is to be filed  with, and the  reporting fee paid to, CRD in accordance with its procedures. The filing of Form U- 4 with  CRD does not constitute an automatic approval of the filing by the Commissioner. The  investment adviser should not consider an IAR “registration” approved until approved by the  Commissioner and notification of the approval has been received through CRD.

(2) Changes – Within 30 days of any changes to Form U-4, an amendment to Form U-4 is to be  filed. The amendment is to be filed directly with CRD in accordance with its procedures.

(3)Termination – Within 30 days of termination of an IAR, Form U-5 is to be filed in accordance  with the form instructions. Form U-5 is to clearly state the reason(s) for termination. This form is  to be filed directly with CRD in accordance with its procedures.

10) What are the fees associated with registering an investment adviser representative?

The registration fee for each IAR is $25. This fee is paid to the Department through the IARD system. There is no annual renewal fee for an IAR.

There is also an annual filing fee of $30 for 2008 (subject to change for future years) that is paid to FINRA for the processing of forms for each IAR. FINRA charges this fee and the Department does not receive any portion of this.

11) Are owners and executive officers considered investment adviser representatives (IAR)? If so, how should I report owners and executive officers of my advisory firm to the Department?

All direct owners and executive officers should be reported on Schedule A of Form ADV and indirect owners should be reported on Schedule B of Form ADV.

Since officers, directors or partners who exercise executive responsibilities (or persons who occupy similar status or perform similar functions), or persons who own 25% or more are presumed to be IARs, a Form U-4 and a $25 reporting fee should be filed for each such individual through the Central Registration Depository (“CRD”).

A paper filing of Form U-4 should be filed directly with the Department for all other officers, directors or partners, or persons who own 10% or more who are not reported as IARs through the CRD.

12) I solicit clients for an investment adviser and receive referral fees for business I send to an investment adviser. Must I register?

Solicitors must be registered either as an investment adviser representative under a registered investment advisory firm or obtain their own independent registered investment adviser certificate.

13) I solely refer clients to registered investment advisers, what qualification requirements are there for solicitors?

Individuals who are reported as an IAR under an investment adviser solely to offer or negotiate for the sale of investment adviser services are exempted from the qualification requirements. However, solicitors seeking their independent registered investment advisory license must be qualified.

14) I’m a Certified Public Accountant (CPA) and refer my clients to third-party investment advisers for referral fees, what qualifications and requirements must I follow?

A special case arises when a CPA acts as referring agent. Like a solicitor, the CPA must be registered either as an investment adviser representative under a registered investment advisory firm or obtain their own independent registered investment adviser certificate. The difference is that the CPA must be qualified by passing the examinations, unless waived or exempted, even if the CPA is to be reported as an investment adviser representative under a registered investment advisory firm. This is because, according to the California Business and Profession Code and the Board of Accountancy, in order for a CPA to receive compensation from a referral, the CPA must provide a professional service related to the product or services that will be provided to the client by the third-party service provider. In addition, the CPA must maintain independence and provide full disclosure of its referral arrangement to the clients.

Please refer to California Business and Profession Code, Section 5061 and California Board of Accountancy, Article 9, Section 56 for more information.

15) Must I have a written contract with my clients? If yes, what information should my advisory contracts contain?

Yes. Advisers providing services pursuant to advisory contracts that are written are considered to promote fair, equitable, and ethical principles. Advisory contracts with clients must be in writing and, at a minimum, must disclose:

(1) The services to be provided;
(2) The term of the contract;
(3) The advisory fee or the formula for computing the fee amount or the manner of calculation  of the amount of the prepaid fee to be returned in the event of contract termination or  nonperformance;
(4) Whether the contract grants discretionary power to the adviser or its representatives; and
(5) That the contract will not be assigned without the consent of the client.

Please refer to CCC Section 25234 and CCR Section 260.238 for more information.

Important: The Form ADV may not specifically request certain information, however; it is the adviser’s fiduciary duty to disclose all material information in order not to mislead clients, so that the client can make informed decisions about entering into or continuing the advisory relationship.

During the Department examination, examiner will view perceived conflicts from the point of view of the customer: Was the disclosure or lack of disclosure a factor in the client’s decision to use an adviser’s services or ratify an adviser’s recommendations? Was the customer misled? Was the customer placed at a disadvantage or taken unfair advantage of as a result of the conflict and the adviser’s lack of disclosure? The burden of proof lies with the adviser.

16) I provide financial planning services to my clients. What disclosure information must I provide in my advisory contracts for my clients?

Financial planners should provide proper disclosures relating to any inherent conflict of interest that may result from any compensation arrangements connected with the financial planning services that are in addition to the financial planning fees and other financial industry activities or affiliations.

Advisers who provide financial planning services and receive compensation (e.g. commissions, fees) from the sale of securities, insurance, real estate or other product or services recommended in the financial plan, or otherwise has a conflict of interest, must deliver to the financial planning clients a notice in writing containing at least the information found below (in addition to the disclosure items in Question 15 at the time of entering into a contract for, or otherwise arranging for the provision of, the delivery of a financial plan:

(1) A conflict exists between the interests of the investment adviser or associated person and  the interests of the client, and
(2) The client is under no obligation to act on the investment adviser’s or associated person’s  recommendation. Moreover, if the client elects to act on any of the recommendations, the  client is under no obligation to effect the transaction through the investment adviser or the  associated person when such person is employed as an agent with a licensed broker-dealer or is  licensed as a broker-dealer or through any associate or affiliate of such person.

This statement may be included in the advisory contract or Schedule F of Form ADV, which for the latter, the client must acknowledge receipt of the disclosure.

Please refer to CCR Section 260.235.2 for more information.

17) When am I required to update my Form ADV?

Form ADV should always contain current and accurate information. Please note that Part 1A and Part 2 contain some similar questions and must be answered consistently. Therefore, both parts must be updated. In addition to your annual updating amendment, you must amend your Form ADV by filing additional amendments, referred to as “other-than-annual amendments,” during the year. If there are material changes to the Form ADV, an “other-than-annual amendment” should be filed within 30 days of the change.

Important: Advisers are recommended to utilize the tables found at the end of this packet to determine if a change to certain items in Form ADV requires prompt amendments. Because questions asked in Part 1 and 2 are similar, a table is also provided that references these questions. Advisers should make sure that the answers to cross-referenced items are answered the same.

Important: Any amendments to Parts 1 and 2 of Form ADV should be electronically filed through the IARD system.

REMEMBER: You must also amend your Form ADV each year by filing an “annual updating amendment” within 90 days after the end of your fiscal year. When you submit your annual updating amendment, you must update your responses to all items in Parts 1 and 2 of Form ADV.

18) Can Part 2 of Form ADV be filed electronically through the IARD system?

Yes, Form ADV Part 2 along with Schedule F must be filed through the IARD system. However, unlike Form ADV Part 1, Part 2 must be completed offline and uploaded to the IARD system. The form must be submitted in a text searchable pdf format in order to be accepted by the IARD system.

IARD system instructions for filing Part 2 of Form ADV can be found on the IARD web site at http://www.iard.com/part2instructions.asp .

An editable PDF version of Form ADV Part 2 with Schedule F can be obtained from the following website:

http://www.nasaa.org/Industry_Regulatory_Resources/Uniform_Forms.

19) Do I need to file an annual updating amendment for Part 2 of Form ADV when there are no changes with the information provided?

Yes, an annual updating amendment of Form ADV Parts 1 and 2 through the IARD system is required regardless of any changes in the business or with the information provided. When filing an annual updating amendment, the IARD system allows advisers to utilize the “Confirm” brochure option to confirm that brochures on file are still current, without having to upload a new version of the PDF file.

Specific instructions for filing Part 2 of Form ADV can be obtained from the IARD website at: http://www.iard.com/pdf/ADV_Part_II_Firm_User_90.pdf .

20) Should I file a new application with the Department if I change my sole proprietorship to a corporation?

No, if there is no practical change in control or management only an amendment to the application is necessary. Successors may file an amendment only if the succession results from a change: 1) in form of organization; 2) in legal status; or 3) in the composition of a partnership.

Change in Form of Organization:

This in an internal reorganization or restructuring. For example, a corporation has two affiliated entities, A and B. A is registered as an IA and provides advisory services. B does bookkeeping and does not perform advisory functions. Now, the corporation decides that B should now be performing advisory services and A should provide bookkeeping. In this situation, B may file an amendment of its predecessor’s application because there is no change in control, since the corporation hasn’t change and the beneficial owners remain the same.

Change in Legal Status:

This is a result of a change in the state of incorporation or a change in the form of the business. For example, a sole proprietorship converts it business to a corporation. This also does not involve a change of control.

Change in Composition of a Partnership:

This involves the death, withdrawal, or addition of a partner in the partnership and is not considered a change in control of the partnership.

To file the Amendment: Successors should check “Yes” to Part 1A, Item 4A; enter the date of succession in Part 1A, Item 4B; and complete Schedule D, Section 4 about the acquired firm information. The successor will keep the same CRD number and the predecessor should NOT file Form ADV-W.

21) Should I file a new application if I am an unregistered person acquiring an existing registered investment adviser?

Yes, successors must file a new application for registration when the succession involves a change in control or management. The following types of successions require the filing of a new application:

Acquisitions:

Acquiring a preexisting investment adviser business by an unregistered person involving a change of control or management.

Consolidations:

When two or more registered investment advisers combine their businesses and decide to conduct their new business through a new unregistered entity.

Division of Dual Registrants:

An entity registered as both an IA and BD that decides to separate one of its functions to an unregistered entity.

These types of successions must be filed by a new application for registration. Setting up an IARD account is the first step in the registration process. Once an adviser establishes an IARD account, the adviser can access Form ADV on IARD and submit it electronically through IARD to the Department. On Form ADV, the successor should check “Yes” to Part 1A, Item 4A; enter the date of the succession in Part 1A, Item 4B; and complete Schedule D, Section 4 about the acquired firm information. A new CRD number will be issued upon approval. Once approved, the predecessor files Form ADV-W to withdraw its license from the Department.

22) What are my minimum financial requirements?

Investment advisers who:

(1) Have custody of client funds or securities must maintain at all times a minimum net worth of  $35,000.
(2) Have discretionary authority over client funds or securities but do not have custody of client  funds or securities must maintain at all times a minimum net worth of $10,000.
(3) Accept prepayment of fees more than $500 per month and six or more months in advance  must maintain at all times a positive net worth.

23) If I am an investment adviser and also a broker-dealer, do I need to meet the minimum net worth requirements for investment advisers?

No, the minimum financial requirements do not apply if the investment adviser is also licensed as a broker-dealer under Code Section 25210, or is registered with the SEC.

24) How is financial net worth determined?

“Net worth” should be calculated as the excess of assets over liabilities, as determined by generally accepted accounting principles. The following items should not be included in the calculation of assets: prepaid expenses (except as to items properly classified as current assets under generally accepted accounting principles), deferred charges, goodwill, franchise rights, organizational expenses, patents, copyrights, marketing rights, unamortized debt discount and expense, and all other assets of intangible nature; home, home furnishings, automobiles, and any other personal items not readily marketable in the case of an individual; advances or loans to stockholders and officers in the case of a corporation, and advances or loans to partners in the case of a partnership.

The Department has created a Minimum Financial Requirement Worksheet which advisers may utilize when computing their net worth, which can be obtained from the Department’s website at: http://www.corp.ca.gov/forms/pdf/2602372.pdf .

25) What happens if I do not meet the net worth requirement?

As a condition of the right to continue to transact business in this state, advisers must notify the Department of any net worth deficiency by the close of the next business day following the discovery that the net worth is less than the minimum required.
After transmitting such notice, advisers must file by the close of the next business day a report of financial condition, including the following:

(1)A trial balance of all ledger accounts;
(2) A statement of all client funds or securities which are not segregated;
(3) A computation of the aggregate amount of client ledger debit balance; and
(4) A statement as to the number of client accounts.

26) When computing my financial net worth on the Minimum Financial Requirement Worksheet provided by the Department, I notice that there is a “120% Test”. What is this 120% of minimum net worth requirement test?

An adviser who is subject to the minimum financial requirement must file interim financial reports with the Department within 15 days after its net worth is reduced to less than 120% of its net worth requirement. The first interim report shall be filed within 15 days after its net worth is reduced to less than 120% of its required minimum net worth, and should be as of a date within the 15-day period. Additional reports should be filed within 15 days after each subsequent monthly accounting period until three successive months’ reports have been filed that show a net worth of more than 120% of the firm’s required minimum net worth.

The submitted interim financial reports should contain:

(1) A Statement of Financial Condition (Balance Sheet);
(2) Minimum Financial Requirement Worksheet; and
(3) A verification form.

27) Do I need to file financial reports to the Department?

An adviser who is subject to the minimum financial requirements must file annual financial reports with the Department within 90 days after its fiscal year-end. The submitted annual financial reports should contain:

(1) A Statement of Financial Condition (Balance Sheet & Income Statement) that must be  prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles;

(2) Supporting schedule containing the computations of the minimum financial requirement.  The Department has supplied a Minimum Financial Requirement Worksheet which advisers may  utilize, and which may be obtained from the Department’s website:
http://www.corp.ca.gov/forms/pdf/2602372.pdf ; and
(3) A verification form must accompany the financial statements. The verification form must: (a)  affirmatively state, to the best knowledge and belief of the person making the verification, that  the financial statements and supporting schedules are true and correct; and (b) be signed under  penalty of perjury. The verification form can be obtained from the Department’s website at:
http://www.corp.ca.gov/forms/pdf/2602412b.pdf

Important: Advisers who have custody of client funds or securities must file audited financial statements prepared by an independent certified public accountant along with the supporting schedule of the net worth computation and the verification form. Please refer to Question # 30 for other requirements pertaining to investment advisers with custody of client funds or securities.

28) I obtain the client’s permission before executing trades, but the brokerage firm will accept my instructions when trading on client accounts. Would I be considered to have discretionary authority?

An investment adviser will not be deemed to have discretionary authority over client accounts when it places trade orders with a broker-dealer pursuant to a third party trading agreement if all the following are met:

(1) The investment adviser has executed a separate investment adviser contract exclusively with  its client which acknowledges that the investment adviser must secure client permission prior to  effecting securities transactions for the client in the client’s brokerage account(s), and
(2) The investment adviser in fact does not exercise discretion with respect to the account,  maintains a log (date and time) or other documents each time client permission is obtained for  transaction, and
(3) A third party trading agreement is executed between the client and a broker-dealer which  specifically limits the investment adviser’s authority in the client’s broker-dealer account to the  placement of trade orders and deduction of investment adviser fees.

29) How is custody of client funds or securities determined?

A person will be deemed to have custody if said person directly or indirectly holds client funds or securities, has any authority to obtain possession of them, or has the ability to appropriate them. Also see Questions 30 through 33, below, for additional information on making custody determinations.

30) What are the requirements for advisers who have custody of client funds and/or securities?

Advisers deemed to have custody of client funds and securities are subject to the following custodial requirements:
(1) $35,000 minimum net worth requirement of CCR Rule 260.237.2,
(2) Surprise verification requirement of CCR Rule 260.237(e), and
(3) Audited financial statements requirement of CCR Rule 260.241.2.

31) I deduct advisory fees directly from the clients’ custodial accounts. Do I have custody of client funds and securities? If yes, are there any procedures I may follow to be exempted from the financial requirements and surprise verification?

Yes and Yes. The Department takes the position that any arrangement under which the adviser is authorized or permitted to withdraw client funds or securities maintained with a custodian upon the adviser’s instruction to the custodian is deemed to have custody of client funds and securities.

Safeguarding Procedures: The Department allows advisers who have this type of payment arrangement to be exempted from the requirements of: (1) $35,000 minimum net worth; (2) audited financial statements; and (3) surprise verification if all of the following procedures are administered:

(1) The client must provide written authorization permitting direct payment from an account  maintained by a custodian who is independent of the adviser;
(2) The adviser must send a statement to the client showing the amount of the fee, the value of  the client’s assets upon which the fee was based, and the specific manner in which the fee was  calculated;
(3) The Adviser must disclose to clients that it is the client’s responsibility to verify the accuracy  of the fee calculation, and that the custodian will not determine whether the fee is properly  calculated; and
(4) The custodian must agree to send the client a statement, at least quarterly, showing all  disbursements from the account, including advisory fees.

Form ADV Disclosure: Advisers who follow the safeguarding procedures for direct fee deduction should respond accordingly on the following sections of their Form ADV:

  • Form ADV: Part 1A, Item 9 (A) – Yes
  • Part 1A, Item 9 (B) – Yes
  • Part 1B, Item 2 I (1) – Yes
  • Part 1B, Item 2 I (1) (a) – Yes
  • Part 1B, Item 2 I (1) (b) Yes
  • Part 1B, Item 2 I (1) (c) – Yes
  • Part 2, Item 14 – No

Important: This exemption does not relieve the advisers from the net worth requirements, which may be lowered to $10,000, or the filing of unaudited financial statements.

32) I manage a limited partnership (LP) and am the general partner of the LP. Am I considered to have custody? If yes, are there any procedures I may follow to receive an exemption from the financial requirements and surprise verification?

Yes and Yes. The Department takes the position that an adviser with any capacity (such as a general partner of a limited partnership, managing member of a limited liability company or a comparable position for another type of pooled investment vehicle) that gives the adviser legal ownership of or access to client funds or securities is deemed to have custody of client funds and securities.

Safeguarding Procedures: An investment adviser acting as a general partner of a limited partnership (or a comparable position for another type of pooled investment vehicle) may receive partnership funds or securities directly from the partnership’s account held by an independent custodian without complying with the surprise audit requirement of CCR Rule 260.237(e), audited financial statements requirement of CCR Rule 260.241.2, and higher net worth requirement of CCR Rule 260.237.2 if all the partnership assets are administered as follows:

(1) One or more independent banks or brokerage firms must hold the partnership’s funds and  securities in the name of the partnership.
(2) Funds received by the partnership for subscriptions must be deposited by the subscriber  directly with the custodian.
(3) The partnership must engage an independent party to approve all fees, expenses, and capital  withdrawals from the pooled accounts.
(4) Each time the general partner makes a payment or withdrawal request, it must  simultaneously send to the independent party and the custodian a statement showing: (a) the  amount of the payment or withdrawal; (b) the value of the partnership’s assets on which the fee  or withdrawal is based; (c) the manner in which the payment or withdrawal is calculated; and (d)  the amount in the general partner’s capital account before and after the withdrawal.
(5) The general partner must also give the independent party sufficient information to allow the  representative to determine that the payments comply with the partnership agreement. The  custodian may transfer funds from the partnership account to the general partner only with the  written authorization of the independent party, and only if the custodian receives a copy of the  written request from the general partner.
(6) The custodian must provide quarterly statements to the partnership and the independent  party.

Form ADV Disclosure: Advisers who follow the safeguarding procedures for pooled investment vehicles should respond accordingly on the following sections of their Form ADV:

Form ADV:

  • Part 1A, Item 9 (A)
  • Part 1A, Item 9 (B)
  • Part 1B, Item 2 I (2)
  • Part 1B, Item 2 I (2) (a)
  • Part 2, Item 14

Important: This exemption does not relieve advisers from the net worth requirement, which may be lowered to $10,000, or from the requirement to file unaudited financial statements.

33) I inadvertently received securities or checks from my advisory clients. Do I have custody?

Yes. To avoid having custody, you must return the securities to the sender promptly within two business days of receiving them. In the case of checks received inadvertently, the adviser must forward the checks to the third party within two business days of receipt.

Important: You are also required to keep accurate records of the securities and funds you received and returned. Such records should contain the description of the checks/securities, when and from whom they were received, where they were sent, and a record of how they were returned.

34) Who can be an independent party?

For purposes of the safeguarding procedures for pooled investment vehicles, an independent party must:

(1) Be a certified public accountant (CPA) or an attorney in good standing with the California  State Bar;
(2)Act as a gatekeeper for the payment of fees, expenses, and capital withdrawals from the  pooled investment;
(3) Not control, and is not controlled by or under common control with the adviser; and
(4) Not have, and have had within the past two years, a material business relationship with the  investment adviser.

35) An accounting firm acts as the independent CPA that audits annually my pooled investment vehicle. May the accounting firm also act as the independent representative for the investors in the pooled investment vehicle?

No, this accounting firm is not acceptable as an independent representative. The independent representative may not have, or have had within the past two years, a material business relationship with the adviser. Also, the purpose for this safeguard is for the independent representative to act as the agent for an advisory client and is thus obliged to act in the best interest of the advisory client, limited partner, member or other beneficial owner. When the CPA sent audited financial statements of the pooled investment vehicle, it would be, in essence, sending itself its own audit results. This is not in the best interest of the investors in the pooled investment vehicle and is not allowed.

Important: Alternatively, if the accounting firm audits the investment adviser’s financial statements or prepares tax filings for the pooled investment vehicle and its investors, the result would be the same. That is, the accounting firm would not satisfy the independence criteria since it has a material business relationship with the adviser

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Please contact us if you have any questions or would like to start a hedge fund.  Other related hedge fund law articles include:

Bart Mallon, Esq. runs hedge fund law blog and has written most all of the articles which appear on this website.  Mr. Mallon’s legal practice is devoted to helping emerging and start up hedge fund managers successfully launch a hedge fund.  Mallon P.C. will also help California based Investment Advisors to register with the California Securities Regulation Division.  If you are a hedge fund manager who is looking to start a hedge fund or an investmen advisor looking to register, please call Mr. Mallon directly at 415-296-8510.

Series 79 Exam

FINRA to Announce New Investment Banking Examination

For many years now all brokers have been treated equally with regard to examination requirements. Whether a broker was working solely with retail clients or solely with institutions on a private placement basis, each such broker would need to take and pass the Series 7 examination in order to become a representative (broker) at the BD (broker firm or broker-dealer). Now, however, there will be a new exam for those brokers whose only acitivites are “investment banking” activities. In the near future these brokers will only need to take and pass a new exam called the Series 79 exam which will presumably be more focused and shorter than the all-day Series 7 exam. I will continue to update this article after the 4th of July weekend, but below I have included the full text of the new FINRA Rule 1032(i) which provides for a new Investment Banking representative registration.

Text of Rule 1032(i)

FINRA Rule 1032. Categories of Representative Registration

(a) through (h) No change.

(i) Limited Representative-Investment Banking

(1) Each person associated with a member who is included within the definition of a representative as defined in NASD Rule 1031 shall be required to register with FINRA as a Limited Representative-Investment Banking and pass a qualification examination as specified by the Board of Governors if such person’s activities involve:

(A) advising on or facilitating debt or equity securities offerings through a private placement or a public offering, including but not limited to origination, underwriting, marketing, structuring, syndication, and pricing of such securities and managing the allocation and stabilization activities of such offerings, or

(B) advising on or facilitating mergers and acquisitions, tender offers, financial restructurings, asset sales, divestitures or other corporate reorganizations or business combination transactions, including but not limited to rendering a fairness, solvency or similar opinion.

(2) Notwithstanding the foregoing, an associated person shall not be required to register as a Limited Representative-Investment Banking if such person’s activities described in paragraph (i)(1) are limited to:

(A) advising on or facilitating the placement of direct participation program securities as defined in NASD Rule 1022(e)(2);

(B) effecting private securities offerings as defined in paragraph (h)(1)(A); or

(C) retail or institutional sales and trading activities.

(3) An associated person who participates in a new employee training program conducted by a member shall not be required to register as a Limited Representative-Investment Banking for a period of up to six months from the time the associated person first engages within the program in activities described in paragraphs (i)(1)(A) or (B), but in no event more than two years after commencing participation in the training program. This exception is conditioned upon the member maintaining records that:

(A) evidence the existence and details of the training program, including but not limited to its scope, length, eligible participants and administrator; and

(B) identify those participants whose activities otherwise would require registration as a Limited Representative-Investment Banking and the date on which each participant commenced such activities.

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Please contact us if you have any questions or would like to  learn how to start a hedge fund.  Other related hedge fund law articles include:

Bart Mallon, Esq. runs hedge fund law blog and has written most all of the articles which appear on this website.  Mr. Mallon’s legal practice is devoted to helping emerging and start up hedge fund managers successfully launch a hedge fund.  If you are a hedge fund manager who is looking to start a hedge fund, please call Mr. Mallon directly at 415-296-8510.

Hedge Fund Records

Access to Records under the Delaware Uniform Limited Partnership Act

A vast majority of hedge funds are structured as limited partnerships under the Delaware Uniform Limited Partnership Act (the DULPA).  The code is very flexible and allows the limited partnership agreement (LPA) to be drafted in a very manager-friendly manner. To the extent that a LPA is silent on an issue covered by the DULPA, the DULPA will control.

With regard to the record keeping requirement of hedge funds, many funds will include a default provision in the LPA which provides investors access to the records of the hedge fund upon reasonable notice to the general partner of the fund.  The records that the investors will have access to are listed in Section 17-305 of the DULPA, which I have reprinted below.  The requirements are fairly standard items which and should not pose an inconvenience to the general partner.

However, managers should note that by defaulting to the DULPA the manager may actually be providing investors in the fund with the potential right to access the name and contact information for other investors in the fund.  DULPA Section 17-305(a)(3) provides,

Each limited partner has the right, subject to such reasonable standards … to obtain from the general partners from time to time upon reasonable demand for any purpose reasonably related to the limited partner’s interest as a limited partner a current list of the name and last known business, residence or mailing address of each partner.

Of course, under this section the investor making such a request would need to show that the request was made a purpose reasonably related to such investors interest in the fund.  The manager would obviously be able to deny such a request if the investor did not present a good reason for the request.  The general partner would also have other potential remedies under Section 17-305(b) and Section 17-305(e).  The hedge fund offering documents could also be revised so as to restrict investors from having this right.

The full text of the section is reprinted below and can be found here.

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§ 17-305. Access to and confidentiality of information; records.

(a) Each limited partner has the right, subject to such reasonable standards (including standards governing what information and documents are to be furnished, at what time and location and at whose expense) as may be set forth in the partnership agreement or otherwise established by the general partners, to obtain from the general partners from time to time upon reasonable demand for any purpose reasonably related to the limited partner’s interest as a limited partner:

(1) True and full information regarding the status of the business and financial condition of the limited partnership;

(2) Promptly after becoming available, a copy of the limited partnership’s federal, state and local income tax returns for each year;

(3) A current list of the name and last known business, residence or mailing address of each partner;

(4) A copy of any written partnership agreement and certificate of limited partnership and all amendments thereto, together with executed copies of any written powers of attorney pursuant to which the partnership agreement and any certificate and all amendments thereto have been executed;

(5) True and full information regarding the amount of cash and a description and statement of the agreed value of any other property or services contributed by each partner and which each partner has agreed to contribute in the future, and the date on which each became a partner; and

(6) Other information regarding the affairs of the limited partnership as is just and reasonable.

(b) A general partner shall have the right to keep confidential from limited partners for such period of time as the general partner deems reasonable, any information which the general partner reasonably believes to be in the nature of trade secrets or other information the disclosure of which the general partner in good faith believes is not in the best interest of the limited partnership or could damage the limited partnership or its business or which the limited partnership is required by law or by agreement with a third party to keep confidential.

(c) A limited partnership may maintain its records in other than a written form if such form is capable of conversion into written form within a reasonable time.

(d) Any demand under this section shall be in writing and shall state the purpose of such demand.

(e) Any action to enforce any right arising under this section shall be brought in the Court of Chancery. If a general partner refuses to permit a limited partner to obtain from the general partner the information described in subsection (a)(3) of this section or does not reply to the demand that has been made within 5 business days after the demand has been made, the limited partner may apply to the Court of Chancery for an order to compel such disclosure. The Court of Chancery is hereby vested with exclusive jurisdiction to determine whether or not the person seeking such information is entitled to the information sought. The Court of Chancery may summarily order the general partner to permit the limited partner to obtain the information described in subsection (a)(3) of this section and to make copies or abstracts therefrom, or the Court of Chancery may summarily order the general partner to furnish to the limited partner the information described in subsection (a)(3) of this section on the condition that the limited partner first pay to the limited partnership the reasonable cost of obtaining and furnishing such information and on such other conditions as the Court of Chancery deems appropriate. When a limited partner seeks to obtain the information described in subsection (a)(3) of this section, the limited partner shall first establish (1) that the limited partner has complied with the provisions of this section respecting the form and manner of making demand for obtaining such information, and (2) that the information the limited partner seeks is reasonably related to the limited partner’s interest as a limited partner. The Court of Chancery may, in its discretion, prescribe any limitations or conditions with reference to the obtaining of information, or award such other or further relief as the Court of Chancery may deem just and proper. The Court of Chancery may order books, documents and records, pertinent extracts therefrom, or duly authenticated copies thereof, to be brought within the State of Delaware and kept in the State of Delaware upon such terms and conditions as the order may prescribe.

(f) The rights of a limited partner to obtain information as provided in this section may be restricted in an original partnership agreement or in any subsequent amendment approved or adopted by all of the partners and in compliance with any applicable requirements of the partnership agreement. The provisions of this subsection shall not be construed to limit the ability to impose restrictions on the rights of a limited partner to obtain information by any other means permitted under this section.

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Please contact us if you have any questions or would like to  learn how to start a hedge fund.  Other related hedge fund law articles include:

Accredited Investor Net Worth Question

Most hedge funds will require investors to be “accredited investors.”  In general, a natural person is deemed to be an accredited investor if (1) the natural person has an individual net worth, or joint net worth with the person’s spouse, that exceeds $1 million at the time of the purchase (i.e. investment into the hedge fund) or (2) the natural person has an income exceeding $200,000 in each of the two most recent years or joint income with a spouse exceeding $300,000 for those years and a reasonable expectation of the same income level in the current year. (See generally Accredited Investor Definition.)

One common question is “does net worth include the equity a person has in their personal residence?”  The answer is yes. The SEC specifically addressed this question in their Interpretive Release On Regulation D.  Below is the actual text from the release which is applicable to this question:

(21) Question: In calculating net worth for purposes of Rule 501(a)(6), may the investor include the estimated fair market value of his principal residence as an asset?

Answer: Yes. Rule 501(a)(6) does not exclude any of the purchaser’s assets from the net worth needed to qualify as an accredited investor.

Note the difference between accredited investors and qualified purchasers with respect to this issue.  Individuals cannot include equity in their personal residence for the purpose of meeting the “qualified purchaser” definition.

Please contact us if you have a question on this issue or if you would like to start a hedge fund.  If you would like more information, please see our articles on starting a hedge fund.  Other related hedge fund law articles include:

Interpretive Release on Regulation D

There are occasionally times when questions arise as to the meaning of certain undefined terms within statutes or regulations.  Practitioners have a variety of different resources which can help shed light onto these undefined terms or at least provide background information or context.  Below is the SEC’s Interpretive Release on the Regulation D rules.  Please note that some of the items in this release may be superceeded by other SEC pronouncements or other lawmaking activities.

Other related hedge fund law articles include:

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SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION
17 CFR Part 231
[Release No. 6455]
Interpretive Release On Regulation D
AGENCY: Securities and Exchange Commission.
ACTION: Publication of Staff Interpretations.

SUMMARY: The Commission has authorized the issuance of this release setting forth the views of its Division of Corporation Finance on various interpretive questions regarding the rules contained in Regulation D under the Securities Act of 1933. These views are being published to answer frequently raised questions with respect to the regulation.

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: David B. H. Martin, Jr., Office of Chief Counsel, Division of Corporation Finance, Securities and Exchange Commission, Washington, D.C. 20549, (202) 272-2573.

SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION: In Release No. 33-6389 (March 8, 1982) (47 FR 11251), the Commission adopted Regulation D (17 CFR 230.501-.506) which provides three exemptions from the registration requirements of the Securities Act of 1933 (the “Securities Act” or the “Act”) (15 U.S.C. 77a-77bbbb (1976 & Supp. IV 1980), as amended by the Bus Regulatory Reform Act of 1982, Pub. L. No. 97-261 §19(d), 96 Stat. 1121 (1982)).1 Regulation D became effective on April 15, 1982.

In the course of administering the regulation, the staff of the Division of Corporation Finance has answered numerous oral and written requests for interpretation of the new provisions. This release is intended to assist those persons who wish to make offerings in reliance on the exemptions in Regulation D by presenting the staff’s views on frequently raised questions. As indicated in Preliminary Note 3 to the regulation, Regulation D is intended to be a basic element in a uniform system of federal-state exemptions. As such, aspects of Regulation D have been incorporated in many state statutes and regulations. The interpretations set forth in this release relate only to the federal provisions.

Regulation D is composed of six rules, Rules 501-506. The first three rules set forth general terms and conditions that apply in whole or in part to the exemptions. The questions arising under Rules 50.1-503 fall into four general categories: definitions, disclosure requirements, operational conditions, and notice of sale requirements. The exemptions of Regulation D are set forth in Rules 504-506. Questions concerning those rules usually raise issues pertaining to more than one exemption. This release, an outline of which follows, is organized so as to reflect this pattern of inquiries.

I. Definitions — Rule 501

A. Accredited Investor — Rule 501(a) (Questions 1 – 30)

1. General

2. Certain Institutional Investors — Rules 501(a)(1) – (3)

3. Insiders — Rule 501(a)(4)

4. $150,000 Purchasers — Rule 501(a)(5)

a. $150,000 Purchase

b. 20 Percent of Net Worth Limitation

5. Natural Persons — Rules 501(a)(6) – (7)

6. Entities Owned By Accredited Investors — Rule 501(a)(8)

7. Trusts as Accredited Investors

B. Aggregate Offering Price — Rule 501(c) (Questions 31 – 36)

C. Executive Officer — Rule 501(f) (Question 37)

D. Purchaser Representative — Rule 501(h) (Questions 38 – 39)

II. Disclosure Requirements — Rule 502(b)

A. When Required (Questions 40 – 41)

B. What Required (Questions 42 – 51)

1. Non-reporting Issuers — Rule 502(b)(2)(i)

2. Reporting Issuers — Rule 502(b)(2)(ii)

C. General (Question 52)

III. Operational Conditions

A. Integration — Rule 502(a) (Question 53)

B. Calculation of Number of Purchasers — Rule 501(e) (Questions 54 – 59)

C. Manner of Offering — Rule 502(c) (Question 60)

D. Limitations on Resale — Rule 502(d) (Question 61)

IV. Exemptions

A. Rule 504 (Questions 62 – 65)

B. Rule 505 (Question 66)

C. Questions Relating to Rules 504 and 505 (Questions 67 – 71)

D. Rule 506 (Questions 72 – 73)

E. Questions Relating to Rules 504-506 (Questions 74 – 80)

V. Notice of Sale — Form D (Questions 81 – 92)

SEC DOCKET(1973-Current)
SEC-RELEASE Interpretive Release on Regulation D Release No. 33-6455

27 SEC-DOCKET 347-01

March 3, 1983

I. Definitions–Rule 501

A. Accredited Investor–Rule 501(a)

Defined in Rule 501(a), the term “accredited investor” is significant to the operation of Regulation D. 2 Under Rule 501(e), for instance, accredited investors are not included in computing the number of purchasers in offerings conducted in reliance on Rules 505 and 506. Also, if accredited investors are the only purchasers in offerings under Rules 505 and 506, Regulation D does not require delivery of specific disclosure as a condition of the exemptions. Finally, in an offering under Rule 506, the issuer’s obligation to ensure the sophistication of purchasers applies to investors that are not accredited. See Rule 506(b)(2)(ii).

The definition sets forth eight categories of investor that may be accredited. The following questions and answers cover certain issues under various of those categories. Given the frequency of questions regarding the application of the definition to trusts, however, there is a separate section addressing that area.

1. General

The definition of “accredited investor” includes any person who comes within or “who the issuer reasonably believes” comes within one of the enumerated categories “at the time of the sale of the securities to that person.” What constitutes “reasonable” belief will depend on the facts of each particular case. For this reason, the staff generally will not be in a position to express views or otherwise endorse any one method for ascertaining whether an investor is accredited.

(1) Question: A director of a corporate issuer purchases securities offered under Rule 505. Two weeks after the purchase, and prior to completion of the offering, the director resigns due to a sudden illness. Is the former director an accredited investor?

Answer: Yes. The preliminary language to Rule 501(a) provides that an investor is accredited if he falls into one of the enumerated categories “at the time of the sale of securities to that person.” One such category includes directors of the issuer. See Rule 501(a)(4). The investor in this case had that status at the time of the sale to him. 3

2. Certain Institutional Investors–Rules 501(a)(1)-(3)

(2) Question: A national bank purchases $100,000 of securities from a Regulation D issuer and distributes the securities equally among ten trust accounts for which it acts as trustee. Is the bank an accredited investor?

Answer: Yes. Rule 501(a)(1) accredits a bank acting in a fiduciary capacity. 4

(3) Question: An ERISA employee benefit plan will purchase $200,000 of the securities being offered. The plan has less than $5,000,000 in total assets and its investment decisions are made by a plan trustee who is not a bank, insurance company, or registered investment adviser. Does the plan qualify as an accredited investor?

Answer: Not under Rule 501(a)(1), Rule 501(a)(1) accredits an ERISA plan that has a plan fiduciary which is a bank, insurance company, or registered investment adviser or that has total assets in excess of $5,000,000. The plan, however, may be an accredited investor under Rule 501(a)(5), which accredits certain persons who purchase at least $150,000 of the securities being offered.

(4) Question: A state run, not-for-profit hospital has total assets in excess of $5,000,000. Because it is a state agency, the hospital is exempt from federal income taxation. Rule 501(a)(3) accredits any organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code that has total assets in excess of $5,000,000. Is the hospital accredited under Rule 501(a)(3)?

Answer: Yes. This category does not require that the investor have received a ruling on tax status under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code. Rather, Rule 501(a)(3) accredits an investor that falls within the substantive description in that section. 5

(5) Question: A not-for-profit, tax exempt hospital with total assets of $3,000,000 is purchasing $100,000 of securities in a Regulation D offering. The hospital controls a subsidiary with total assets of $3,000,000. Under generally accepted accounting principles, the hospital may combine its financial statements with that of its subsidiary. Is the hospital accredited?

Answer: Yes, under Rule 501(a)(3). Where the financial statements of the subsidiary may be combined with those of the investor, the assets of the subsidiary may be added to those of the investor in computing total assets for purposes of Rule 501(a)(3). 6

3. Insiders–Rule 501(a)(4)

(6) Question: The executive officer of a parent of the corporate general partner of the issuer is investing in the Regulation D offering. Is that individual an accredited investor?

Answer: Rule 501(a)(4) accredits only the directors and executive officers of the general partner itself. Unless the executive officer of the parent can be deemed an executive officer of the Subsidiary, 7 that individual is not an accredited investor.

4. $150,000 Purchasers–Rule 501(a)(5)

This provision accredits any person 8 who satisfies two separate tests. To be accredited under Rule 501(a)(5), an investor must purchase at least $150,000 of the securities being offered, by one or a combination of four specific methods: cash, marketable securities, an unconditional obligation to pay cash or marketable securities over not more than five years, and cancellation of indebtedness. The rule also requires that “the total purchase price” may not exceed 20 percent of the purchaser’s net worth. The two tests under Rule 501(a)(5) must be considered separately. Thus, for instance, in computing the “total purchase price” for the 20 percent of net worth limitation, the investor may have to include amounts that could not be included towards the $150,000 purchase test.

a. $150,000 Purchase

(7) Question: Two issuers, a general partner and its limited partnership, are selling their securities simultaneously as units consisting of common stock and limited partnership interests. The issues are part of a plan of financing made for the same general purpose. If an investor purchases $150,000 of these units, would it satisfy the $150,000 purchase element of Rule 501(a)(5)?

Answer: Yes. The issuers are affiliated and the simultaneous sale of their separate securities as units for a single plan of financing would be deemed one integrated offering. Rule 501(a)(5) applies to a purchase “of the securities being offered.” The rule thus applies not to the securities of a particular issuer, but to the securities of a particular offering. 9

(8) Question: An investor will purchase securities in cash installments. Each installment payment will include amounts due on the principal as well as interest. If the total of all payments is $150,000, will the investor have purchased “at least $150,000 of the securities being offered” for purposes of Rule 501(a)(5)?

Answer: No. Under Rule 501(a)(5), any amount constituting interest due on the unpaid purchase price is not payment for the “securities being offered.”

(9) Question: The installment payments for interest in a limited partnership that will develop commercial real estate will be conditioned upon completion of certain phases of the project. Will the obligation to make those payments be deemed “an unconditional obligation to pay” for purposes of Rule 501(a)(5)?

Answer: Yes, as long as the only conditions relate to completion of successive stages of the development project.

(10) Question: An investor will purchase securities in a Regulation D offering by delivering $75,000 in cash and a letter of credit for $75,000. Will such a purchase satisfy the $150,000 element of Rule 501(a)(5)?

Answer: No. Because there is no assurance that the letter of credit will ever be drawn against, the staff does not deem it to be an unconditional obligation to pay.

(11) Question: In connection with the sale of limited partnership interests in an oil and gas drilling program, an investor in a Regulation D offering commits to pay subsequent assessments that are mandatory, non-contingent, and for which the investor will be personally liable. Will the commitment to pay the assessments constitute an “unconditional obligation to pay” under Rule 501(a)(5)?

Answer: Yes. The assessments are essentially installment payments for which the investor makes the investment decision at the time the limited partnership interest originally is purchased. 10

(12) Question: If the assessments in Question 11 are voluntary, contingent and non-recourse, can they be included in determining whether or not the investor has purchased $150,000 of the securities being offered?

Answer: No. voluntary assessments of this nature are not deemed to constitute an unconditional obligation to pay. 11

(13) Question: A purchaser of interests in a limited partnership makes a partial down payment and commits unconditionally to pay the balance over five years. Formation of the partnership is conditioned upon the sale of a specified number of interests. Under Rule 501(a)(5), when must the five year period for installment payments being to run?

Answer: Rule 501(a)(5) provides that the unconditional obligation is to be discharged “within five years of the sale of the securities to the purchaser.” For ease in the administration of an offering that is conditioned on a certain minimum level of sales, the staff believes it is reasonable to compute the length of installment obligations from the same date for the investors involved in reaching that minimum. Therefore, without any bearing on when the sale of the security actually occurs, the five-year time period of the investor’s obligation may be measured from the date such minimum level of sales has been reached. 12

b. 20 Percent of Net Worth Limitation

(14) Question: Where an investor makes installment payments composed of principal and interest, must the interest payments be included in computing the “total purchase price” for purposes of meeting the 20 percent of net worth limitation?

Answer: No. The interest is not part of the total purchase price but rather is an expense associated with financing the total purchase price.

(15) Question: A corporate investor will purchase $200,000 of the securities being offered for cash. Additionally, the investor will deliver an irrevocable letter of credit for $50,000 which the issuer will use as collateral in connection with a line of credit it will establish with a lending institution. Must the issuer include the $50,000 letter of credit when determining whether or not the purchaser’s total purchase price exceeds 20 percent of its net worth under Rule 501(a)(5)?

Answer: Yes. Since the investor has committed to pay the $50,000 at the election of the issuer, that amount must be included with other forms of consideration in order to measure what percentage of the investor’s net worth has been committed in the investment. 13

(16) Question: As part of the purchase of an interest in a sale and lease-back program, the purchaser will deliver “non-recourse” debt where the source of payment for the debt is limited exclusively to the income generated by the security being purchased or the assets of the entity in which the security is being purchased. Must the non-recourse debt be included in the total purchase price for purposes of the 20 percent of net worth limitation under Rule 501(a)(5)?

Answer: No. Because the investor has no personal liability for the non-recourse debt, and because no part of the investor’s assets at the time of purchase is available as a source of payment for the debt, the debt should not be included as part of the purchase price. 14

(17) Question: Where the purchaser is a natural person, Rule 501(a)(5) provides that the total purchase price may be measured against the purchaser’s net worth combined with that of a spouse. Would property held solely by one spouse be available for calculating the net worth of the other spouse who is making the $150,000 investment?

Answer: Yes.

(18) Question: An investment general partnership is purchasing securities in a Regulation D offering. The partnership was not formed for the specific purpose of acquiring the securities being offered. May the issuer consider the aggregate net worth of the general partners in calculating the net worth of the partnership?

Answer: Yes. An investment general partnership is functionally a vehicle in which profits and losses are passed through to general partners and in which the net worths of the general partners are exposed to the risk of partnership investments. 15

(19) Question: A totally held subsidiary 16 makes a cash investment of $200,000 in a Regulation D offering. May that subsidiary use the consolidated net worth of its parent in determining whether or not its total purchase price exceeds 20 percent of its net worth?

Answer: Yes. 17

5. Natural Persons–Rules 501(a)(6)-(7)

Rules 501(a)(6) and (7) apply only to natural persons. Paragraph (6) accredits any natural person with a net worth at the time of purchase in excess of $1,000,000. If the investor is married, the rule permits the use of joint net worth of the couple. Paragraph (7) accredits any natural person whose income has exceeded $200,000 in each of the two most recent years and is reasonably expected to exceed $200,000 in the year of the investment.

(20) Question: A corporation with a net worth of $2,000,000 purchases securities in a Regulation D offering. Is the corporation an accredited investor under Rule 501(a)(6)?

Answer: No. Rule 501(a)(6) is limited to “natural” persons.

(21) Question: In calculating net worth for purposes of Rule 501(a)(6), may the investor include the estimated fair market value of his principal residence as an asset?

Answer: Yes. Rule 501(a)(6) does not exclude any of the purchaser’s assets from the net worth needed to qualify as an accredited investor.

(22) Question: May a purchaser take into account income of a spouse in determining possible accreditation under Rule 501(a)(7)?

Answer: No. Rule 501(a)(7) requires “individual income” over $200,000 in order to qualify as an accredited investor.

(23) Question: May a purchaser include unrealized capital appreciation in calculating income for purposes of Rule 501(a)(7)?

Answer: Generally, no.

6. Entities Owned By Accredited Investors–Rule 501(a)(8)

Any entity in which each equity owner is an accredited investor under any of the qualifying categories, except that of the $150,000 purchaser, is accredited under Rule 501(a)(8).

(24) Question: All but one of the shareholders of a corporation are accredited investors by virtue of net worth or income. The unaccredited shareholder is a director who bought one share of stock in order to comply with a requirement that all directors be shareholders of the corporation. Is the corporation an accredited investor under Rule 501(a)(8)?

Answer: No. Rule 501(a)(8) requires “all of the equity owners” to be accredited investors. The director is an equity owner and is not accredited. Note that the director cannot be accredited under Rule 501(a)(4). That provision extends accreditation to a director of the issuer, not of the investor.

(25) Question: Who are the equity owners of a limited partnership?

Answer: The limited partners.

7. Trusts as Accredited Investors

(26) Question: May a trust qualify as an accredited investor under Rule 501(a)(1)?

Answer: Only indirectly. Although a trust standing alone cannot be accredited under Rule 501(a)(1), if a bank is its trustee and makes the investment on behalf of the trust, the trust will in effect be accredited by virtue of the provision in Rule 501(a)(1) that accredits a bank acting in a fiduciary capacity.

(27) Question: May a trust qualify as an accredited investor under Rule 501(a)(5)?

Answer: Yes. The Division interprets “person” in Rule 501(a)(5) to include any trust. 18

(28) Question: In qualifying a trust as an accredited investor under Rule 501(a)(5), whose net worth should be considered in determining whether the total purchase price meets the 20 percent of net worth limitation test?

Answer: The net worth of the trust.

(29) Question: A trustee of a trust has a net worth of $1,500,000. Is the trustee’s purchase of securities for the trust that of an accredited investor under Rule 501(a)(6)?

Answer: No. Except where a bank is a trustee, the trust is deemed the purchaser, not the trustee. The trust is not a “natural” person.

(30) Question: May a trust be accredited under Rule 501(a)(8) if all of its beneficiaries are accredited investors?

Answer: Generally, no. Rule 501(a)(8) accredits any entity if all of its “equity owners” are accredited investors. The staff does not interpret this provision to apply to the beneficiaries of a conventional trust. The result may be different, however, in the case of certain non-conventional trusts where, as a result of powers retained by the grantors, a trust as a legal entity would be deemed not to exist. 19 Thus, where the grantors of a revocable trust are accredited investors under Rule 501(a)(6) (i.e. net worth exceeds $1,000,000) and the trust may be amended or revoked at any time by the grantors, the trust is accredited because the grantors will be deemed the equity owners of the trust’s assets. 20 Similarly, where the purchase of Regulation D securities is made by an Individual Retirement Account and the participant is an accredited investor, the account would be accredited under Rule 501(a)(8).

B. Aggregate Offering Price–Rule 501(c)

The “aggregate offering price,” defined in Rule 501(c), is the sum of all proceeds received by the issuer for issuance of its securities. The term is important to the operation of Rules 504 and 505, both of which impose a limitation on the aggregate offering price as a specific condition to the availability of the exemption. 21

(31) Question: The sole general partner of a real estate limited partnership contributes property to the program. Must that property be valued and included in the overall proceeds of the offering as part of the aggregate offering price?

Answer: No, assuming the property is contributed in exchange for a general partnership interest.

(32) Question: An owner of a mining or oil and gas property is selling interests in the property to investors for cash. The owner will retain a royalty interest in the property. Must any subsequent royalty payments be included in the aggregate offering price of the property interests?

Answer: No. Royalty payments to the seller of the property are treated as operating expenses, rather than capitalized costs for the property. As such, the royalty payments are not part of the consideration received by the issuer for issuance of the securities.

(33) Question: Where the investors pay for their securities in installments and these payments include an interest component, must the issuer include interest payments in the “aggregate offering price?”

Answer: No. The interest payments are not deemed to be consideration for the issuance of the securities. 22

(34) Question: An offering of interests in an oil and gas limited partnership provides for additional voluntary assessments. These assessments, undetermined at the time of the offering, may be called at the general partner’s discretion for developmental drilling activities. Must the assessments be included in the aggregate offering price, and if so, in what amount?

Answer: Because it is, unclear that the assessments will ever be called, and because if they are called, it is unclear at what level, the issuer is not required to include the assessments in the aggregate offering price. In fact, the assessments will be consideration received for the issuance of additional securities in the limited partnership. This issuance will need to be considered along with the original issuance for possible integration, or, if not integrated, must find its own exemption from registration.

(35) Question: In purchasing interests in an oil and gas partnership, investors agree to pay mandatory assessments. The assessments, essentially installment payments, are non-contingent and investors will be personally liable for their payment. Must the issuer include the assessments in the aggregate offering price?

Answer: Yes. 23

(36) Question: As part of their purchase of securities, investors deliver irrevocable letters of credit. Must the letters of credit be included in the aggregate offering price?

Answer: If these letters of credit were drawn against, the amounts involved would be considered part of the aggregate offering price. For this reason, in planning the transaction, the issuer should consider the full amount of the letters of credit in calculating the aggregate offering price.

C. Executive Officer–Rule 501(f)

The definition of executive officer in Rule 501(f) is the same as that in Rule 405 of Regulation C (17 CFR 230.405).

(37) Question: The executive officer of the parent of the Regulation D issuer performs a policy making function for its subsidiary. May that individual be deemed an “executive officer” of the subsidiary?

Answer: Yes.

D. Purchaser Representative–Rule 501(h)

A purchaser representative is any person who satisfies, or who the issuer reasonably believes satisfies, four conditions enumerated in Rule 501(h). Beyond the obligations imposed by that rule, any person acting as a purchaser representative must consider whether or not he is required to register as a broker-dealer under section 15 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Exchange Act”) (15 U.S.C. 78a-78kk (1976 & Supp. IV 1980)) or as an investment adviser under section 203 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-1-80b-21 (1976 & Supp. IV 1980)). 24

(38) Question: May the officer of a corporate general partner of the issuer qualify as a purchaser representative under Rule 501(h)?

Answer: Rule 501(h) provides that “an affiliate, director, officer or other employee of the issuer” may not be a purchaser representative unless the purchaser has one of three enumerated relationships with the representative. The staff is of the view that an officer or director of a corporate general partner comes within the scope of “affiliate, director, officer or other employee of the issuer.”

(39) Question: May the issuer in a Regulation D offering pay the fees of the purchaser representative?

Answer: Yes. Nothing in Regulation D prohibits the payment by the issuer of the purchaser representative’s fees. Rule 501(h)(4), however, requires disclosure of this fact. 25

II. Disclosure Requirements–Rule 502(b)

A. When Required

Rule 502(b)(1) sets forth the circumstances when disclosure of the kind specified in the regulation must be delivered to investors. The regulation requires the delivery of certain information “during the course of the offering and prior to sale” if the offering is conducted in reliance on Rule 505 or 506 and if there are unaccredited investors. If the offering is conducted in compliance with Rule 504 or if securities are sold only to accredited investors, Regulation D does not specify the information that must be disclosed to investors. 26

(40) Question: An issuer furnishes potential investors a short form offering memorandum in anticipation of actual selling activities and the delivery of an expanded disclosure document. Does Regulation D permit the delivery of disclosure in two installments?

Answer: So long as all the information is delivered prior to sale, the use of a fair and adequate summary followed by a complete disclosure document is not prohibited under Regulation D. Disclosure in such a manner, however, should not obscure material information.

(41) Question: An issuer commences an offering in reliance on Rule 505 in which the issuer intends to make sales only to accredited investors. The issuer delivers those investors an abbreviated disclosure document. Before the completion of the offering, the issuer changes its intentions and proposes to make sales to non-accredited investors. Would the requirement that the issuer deliver the specified information to all purchasers prior to sale if any sales are made to non-accredited investors preclude application of Rule 505 to the earlier sales to the accredited investors?

Answer: No. If the issuer delivers a complete disclosure document to the accredited investors and agrees to return their funds promptly unless they should elect to remain in the program, the issuer would not be precluded from relying on Rule 505.

B. What Required

Regulation D divides disclosure into two categories: that to be furnished by non-reporting companies and that required for reporting companies. In either case, the specified disclosure is required to the extent material to an understanding of the issuer, its business and the securities being offered.

1. Non-Reporting Issuers–Rule 502(b)(2)(i)

If the issuer is not subject to the reporting requirements of section 13 or 15(d) of the Exchange Act, 27 it must furnish the specified information “to the extent material to an understanding of the issuer, its business and the securities being offered.” For offerings up to $5,000,000, the issuer should furnish the “same kind of information” as would be contained in Part I of Form S-18, 28 except that only the most recent year’s financial statements need be certified. For offerings over $5,000,000, the issuer should furnish “the same kind of information” as would be required in Part I of an available registration statement. 29

(42) Question: When an issuer is required to deliver specific disclosure, must that disclosure be in written form?

Answer: Yes.

(43) Question: Form S-18 requires the issuer’s audited balance sheet as of the end of its most recently completed fiscal year or within 135 days if the issuer has been in existence for a shorter time. With a limited partnership that has been formed with minimal capitalization immediately prior to a Regulation D offering, must the Regulation D disclosure document contain an audited balance sheet for the issuer?

Answer: In analyzing this or any other disclosure question under Regulation D, the issuer starts with the general rule that it is obligated to furnish the specified information “to the extent material to an understanding of the issuer, its business, and the securities being offered.” Thus, in this particular case, if an audited balance sheet is not material to the investor’s understanding, then the issuer may elect to present an alternative to its audited balance sheet.

(44) Question: Is Securities Act Industry Guide 5 30 applicable in a $4,000,000 Regulation D offering of interests in a real estate limited partnership?

Answer: Rule 502(b)(2)(i)(A) requires the issuer to provide the same kind of information as that required in Part I of Form S-18. 31 Form S-18 directs the issuer’s attention to the Industry Guides, noting that such guides “represent Division practices with respect to the disclosure to be provided by the affected industries in registration statements.” In preparing its Regulation D offering material, therefore, an issuer of interests in a real estate limited partnership should consider Guide 5 in determining the disclosure that will be material to the investor’s understanding of the issuer, its business and the securities being offered.

(45) Question: In a $4,000,000 Regulation D offering of interests in an oil and gas limited partnership, what are the issuer’s disclosure obligations with respect to financial statements of the general partner?

Answer: Item 21(h) of Form S-18 provides that the issuer should furnish the audited balance sheet as of the end of the most recent fiscal year of any corporation or partnership that is a general partner of the issuer. For any general partner that is a natural person, in lieu of an audited balance sheet, the issuer may furnish a statement of that individual’s net worth in the text of the disclosure document, where assets and liabilities are estimated at fair market value with provisions for estimated income taxes on unrealized gains. 32

(46) Question: The issuer in a $3,000,000 Regulation D offering is a limited partnership that will acquire certain real estate operations with the offering proceeds. What is the appropriate consideration for disclosure of the operating history of these operations?

Answer: Item 21(g) of Form S-18, which provides special guidance for such disclosure, calls for the audited income statements of the operations, with certain exclusions, for the two most recent fiscal years. If the issuer can meet certain conditions, however, the instruction reduces that requirement to only one year of audited income statements. 33

Under Regulation D, Rule 502(b)(2)(i)(A) provides that only the financial statements for the issuer’s most recent fiscal year must be certified in an offering not in excess of $5,000,000. The staff is of the view that this provision applies to all financial statements in the disclosure document.

Thus, in the Regulation D offering described, the following considerations apply. If the issuer can meet the conditions in Item 21(g) of Form S-18, it may present one year of audited income statements on the operations to be acquired. If the issuer cannot meet the conditions in Form S-18, then it should present two years of income statements, only one of which must be audited.

(47) Question: If the issuer in Question 46 cannot obtain the financial statements on the operations to be acquired without unreasonable effort or expense, what further considerations are applicable under Regulation D?

Answer: Rule 502(b)(2)(i)(A) provides that “if the issuer is a limited partnership and cannot obtain the required financial statements without unreasonable effort or expense, it may furnish financial statements that have been prepared on the basis of federal income tax requirements and examined and reported on in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards by an independent public or certified accountant.” The staff interprets this provision to apply to all financial statements that the issuer presents in the offering document. Thus, the issuer described above may present tax basis operating statements on the operations to be acquired. 34

(48) Question: Has the Commission defined or will the staff issue interpretations on the term “unreasonable effort or expense?”

Answer: No. The meaning of “unreasonable effort or expense” depends on the particular facts and circumstances attending each case. Only the issuer will know the facts and circumstances and be able to evaluate them with respect to the requirements of the rule.

(49) Question: The issuer in a Regulation D offering of $7,000,000 is a corporation. That corporation is acquiring a business. The issuer is unable to obtain the financial statements for that business without unreasonable effort or expense. 35 What are the relevant considerations under Regulation D?

Answer: Rule 502(b)(2)(i)(B) provides that if the issuer is not a limited partnership and “cannot obtain audited financial statements without unreasonable effort or expense, then only the issuer’s balance sheet, which shall be dated within 120 days of the start of the offering, must be audited.” The staff has interpreted this provision in the context of Rule 3-05 of Regulation S-X to apply to the financial statements of the business being acquired. Thus, if the business being acquired is other than a limited partnership, and if the issuer cannot obtain audited financial statements of that business without unreasonable effort or expense, then the issuer may provide the relevant financial statements for the business being acquired on an unaudited basis so long as it also provides an audited balance sheet for that business dated within 120 days of the start of the offering, or, if appropriate, as of the date of acquisition of the business. 36

2. Reporting Issuers–Rule 502(b)(2)(ii)

If the issuer is subject to the reporting requirements of section 13 or 15(d) of the Exchange Act, Regulation D sets forth two alternatives for disclosure: the issuer may deliver certain recent Exchange Act reports (the annual report, the definitive proxy statement, and, if requested, the Form 10-K (17 CFR 249.310)) or it may provide a document containing the same information as in the Form 10-K or Form 10 (17 CFR 249.210) under the Exchange Act or in a registration statement under the Securities Act. In either case the rule also calls for the delivery of certain supplemental information.

(50) Question: Rule 502(b)(2)(ii)(B) refers to the information contained “in a registration statement on Form S-1.” Does this requirement envision delivery of Parts I and II of the Form S-1?

Answer: No. Rule 502(b)(2)(ii)(B) should be construed to mean Part I of Form S-1.

(51) Question: A reporting company with a fiscal year ending on December 31 is making a Regulation D offering in February. It does not have an annual report to shareholders, an associated definitive proxy statement, or a Form 10-K for its most recently completed fiscal year. The issuer’s last registration statement was filed more than two years ago. What is the appropriate disclosure under Regulation D?

Answer: The issuer may base its disclosure on the most recently completed fiscal year for which an annual report to shareholders or Form 10-K was timely distributed or filed. The issuer should supplement the information in the report used with the information contained in any reports or documents required to be filed under sections 13(a), 14(a), 14(c) and 15(d) of the Exchange Act since the distribution or filing of that report and with a brief description of the securities being offered, the use of the proceeds from the offering, and any material changes in the issuer’s affairs that are not disclosed in the documents furnished.

See Rule 502(b)(2)(ii)(C).

C. General

Rule 502(b)(2) also contains four general provisions applicable to all classes of issuer in all offerings where specified disclosure is required. These provisions govern exhibits, disclosure of additional information to non-accredited investors, the opportunity for further investor inquiries, and disclosure of certain additional information in business combinations.

(52) Question: In a Rule 505 or 506 offering of interests in a limited partnership where certain purchasers are not accredited investors, must the issuer obtain an opinion of counsel regarding the legality of the securities being issued or an opinion regarding the tax consequences of an investment in the offering?

Answer: Rule 502(b)(2)(iii) provides that the issuer is not required to furnish the exhibits that would accompany the form of registration or report governing the issuer’s disclosure document if the issuer identifies the contents of those exhibits and makes them available to purchasers upon written request prior to purchase. 37 Any form of registration to which the issuer refers in preparing its disclosure document under Regulation D requires that the issuer furnish the exhibits required by Item 601 of Regulation S-K. Item 601 requires that the issuer furnish, among other exhibits, an opinion of counsel as to the legality of the securities being issued. Thus, under Rule 502(b)(2)(iii), the issuer should identify the contents of this opinion of counsel and make it available to purchasers upon written request. Item 601 also sets forth certain requirements for an opinion as to tax matters. Such an opinion is required to support any representations in a prospectus as to material tax consequences. Thus, assuming the Regulation D issuer will make representations in the disclosure document as to material tax consequences of investing in a limited partnership, the issuer should identify the contents of and make available upon request an opinion supporting that discussion. 38

III. Operational Conditions

A. Integration–Rule 502(a)

Rule 502(a) achieves two purposes. First, it explicitly incorporates the doctrine of integration into Regulation D. Second, it establishes an exception to the operation of that doctrine.

Integration operates to identify the scope of a particular offering by considering the relationship between multiple transactions. It is premised on the concept that the Securities Act addresses discrete offerings and on the recognition that not every offering is in fact a discrete transaction. The integration doctrine prevents an issuer from circumventing the registration requirements of the Securities Act by claiming a separate exemption for each part of a series of transactions that comprises a single offering. Because the determination of whether transactions should be integrated into one offering is so dependent on particular facts and circumstances, the staff does not issue interpretations in this area. 39 The Note to Rule 502(a), however, does set forth a number of factors that should be considered in making an integration determination.

Rule 502(a) also sets forth an exception to the integration doctrine. It provides that a Regulation D offering will not be integrated with offers or sales that occur more than six months before or after the Regulation D offering. This six month safe harbor rule only applies, however, where there have been no offers or sales (except under an employee benefit plan) of securities similar to those in the Regulation D offering within the applicable six months. 40

(53) Question: An issuer conducts offering (A) under Rule 504 of Regulation D that concludes in January. Seven months later the issuer commences offering (B) under Rule 506. During that seven month period the issuer’s only offers or sales of securities are under an employee benefit plan (C). Must the issuer integrate (A) and (B)?

Answer: No. Rule 502(a) specifically provides that (A) and (B) will not be integrated. 41

B. Calculation of the Number of Purchasers–Rule 501(e)

Rule 501(e) governs the calculation of the number of purchasers in offerings that rely either on Rule 505 or 506. Both of these rules limit the number of non-accredited investors to 35. Rule 501(e) has two parts. The first excludes certain purchasers from the calculation. The second establishes basic principles for counting of corporations, partnerships, or other entities.

(54) Question: One purchaser in a Rule 506 offering is an accredited investor. Another is a first cousin of that investor sharing the same principal residence. Each purchaser is making his own investment decision. How must the issuer count these purchasers for purposes of meeting the 35 purchaser limitation?

Answer: The issuer is not required to count either investor. The accredited investor may be excluded under Rule 501(e)(1)(iv), and the first cousin may then be excluded under Rule 501(e)(1)(i). 42

(55) Question: An accredited investor in a Rule 506 offering will have the securities she acquires placed in her name and that of her spouse. The spouse will not make an investment decision with respect to the acquisition. How many purchasers will be involved?

Answer: The accredited investor may be excluded from the count under Rule 501(e)(1)(iv) and the spouse may be excluded under Rule 501(e)(1)(i). The issuer may also take the position, however, that the spouse should not be deemed a purchaser at all because he did not make any investment decision, and because the placement of the securities in joint name may simply be a tax or estate planning technique.

(56) Question: An offering is conducted in the United States under Rule 505. At the same time certain sales are made overseas. Must the foreign investors be included in calculating the number of purchasers?

Answer: Offers and sales of securities to foreign persons made outside the United States in such a way that the securities come to rest abroad generally do not need to be registered under the Act. This basis for non-registration is separate from Regulation D and offers and sales relying on this interpretation are not required to be integrated with a coincident domestic offering. 43 Thus, assuming the sales in this question rely on this interpretation, foreign investors would not be counted.

(57) Question: An investor in a Rule 506 offering is a general partnership that was not organized for the specific purpose of acquiring the securities offered. The partnership has ten partners, five of whom do not qualify as accredited investors. The partnership will make an investment of $100,000. How is the partnership counted and must the issuer make any findings as to the sophistication of the individual partners?

Answer: Rule 501(e)(2) provides that the partnership shall be counted as one purchaser. The issuer is not obligated to consider the sophistication of each individual partner.

(58) Question: If the partnership in Question 57 purchases $200,000 of the securities being offered and if that amount does not exceed 20 percent of the partnership’s net worth, how should the partnership be counted?

Answer: Rule 501(e)(2), which provides that the partnership shall be counted as one purchaser, operates in tandem with Rule 501(e)(1). Thus, because the partnership is an accredited investor (in this case under Rule 501(a)(5)), the partnership may be excluded from the count under Rule 501(e)(2)(iv).

(59) Question: An investor in a Rule 506 offering is an investment partnership that is not accredited under Rule 501(a)(8). Although the partnership was organized two years earlier and has made investments in a number of offerings, not all the partners have participated in each investment. With each proposed investment by the partnership, individual partners have received a copy of the disclosure document and have made a decision whether or not to participate. How do the provisions of Regulation D apply to the partnership as an investor?

Answer: The partnership may not be treated as a single purchaser. Rule 501(e)(2) provides that if the partnership is organized for the specific purpose of acquiring the securities offered, then each beneficial owner of equity interests should be counted as a separate purchaser. Because the individual partners elect whether or not to participate in each investment, the partnership is deemed to be reorganized for the specific purpose of acquiring the securities in each investment. 44 Thus, the issuer must look through the partnership to the partners participating in the investment. The issuer must satisfy the conditions of Rule 506 as to each partner.

C. Manner of Offering–Rule 502(c)

Rule 502(c) prohibits the issuer or any person acting on the issuer’s behalf from offering or selling securities by any form of general solicitation or general advertising. The analysis of facts under Rule 502(c) can be divided into two separate inquiries. First, is the communication in question a general solicitation or general advertisement? Second, if it is, is it being used by the issuer or by someone on the issuer’s behalf to offer or sell the securities? If either question can be answered in the negative, then the issuer will not be in violation of Rule 502(c). Questions under Rule 502(c) typically present issues of fact and circumstance that the staff is not in a position to resolve. In several instances, however, the staff has been able to address questions under the rule.

In analyzing what constitutes a general solicitation, the staff considered a solicitation by the general partner of a limited partnership to limited partners in other active programs sponsored by the same general partner. In determining that this did not constituted a general solicitation the Division underscored the existence and substance of the pre-existing business relationship between the general partner and those being solicited. The general partner represented that it believed each of the solicitees had such knowledge and experience in financial and business matters that he or she was capable of evaluating the merits and risks of the prospective investment. See letter re Woodtrails-Seattle, Ltd. dated July 8, 1982.

In analyzing whether or not an issuer was using a general advertisement to offer or sell securities, the staff declined to express an opinion on a proposed tombstone advertisement that would announce the completion of an offering. See letter re Alma Securities Corporation dated July 2, 1982. Because the requesting letter did not describe the proposed use of the tombstone announcement and because the announcement of the completion of one offering could be an indirect solicitation for a new offering, the staff did not express a view. In a letter re Tax Investment Information Corporation dated January 7, 1983, the staff considered whether the publication of a circular analyzing private placement offerings, where the publisher was independent from the issuers and the offerings being analyzed, would violate Rule 502(c). Although Regulation D does not directly prohibit such a third party publication, the staff refused to agree that such a publication would be permitted under Regulation D because of its susceptibility to use by participants in an offering. Finally, in the letter re Aspen Grove dated November 8, 1982 the staff expressed the view that the proposed distribution of a promotional brochure to the members of the “Thoroughbred Owners and Breeders Association” and at an annual sale for horse owners and the proposed use of a magazine advertisement for an offering of interests in a limited partnership would not comply with Rule 502(c).

(60) Question: If a solicitation were limited to accredited investors, would it be deemed in compliance with Rule 502(c)?

Answer: The mere fact that a solicitation is directed only to accredited investors will not mean that the solicitation is in compliance with Rule 502(c). Rule 502(c) relates to the nature of the offering not the nature of the offerees.

D. Limitations on Resale–Rule 502(d)

Rule 502(d) makes it clear that Regulation D securities have limitations on transferability and requires that the issuer take certain precautions to restrict the transferability of the securities.

(61) Question: An investor in a Regulation D offering wishes to resell his securities within a year after the offering. The issuer has agreed to register the securities for resale. Will the proposed resale under the registration statement violate Rule 502(d)?

Answer: No. The function of Rule 502(d) is to restrict the unregistered resale of securities. Where the resale will be registered, however, such restrictions are unnecessary.

IV. Exemptions

A. Rule 504

Rule 504 is an exemption under section 3(b) of the Securities Act available to non-reporting and non-investment 45 companies for offerings not in excess of $500,000.

(62) Question: A foreign issuer proposes to use Rule 504. The issuer is not subject to section 15(d) and its securities are exempt from registration under Rule 12g3-2 (17 CFR 240.12g3-2). May this issuer use Rule 504?

Answer: Yes.

(63) Question: An issuer proposes to make an offering under Rule 504 in two states. The offering will be registered in one state and the issuer will deliver a disclosure document pursuant to the state’s requirements. The offering will be made pursuant to an exemption from registration in the second state. Must the offering satisfy the limitations on the manner of offering and on resale in paragraphs (c) and (d) of Rule 502?

Answer: Yes. An offering under Rule 504 is exempted from the manner of sale and resale limitations only if it is registered in each state in which it is conducted and only if a disclosure document is required by state law.

(64) Question: The state in which the offering will take place provides for “qualification” of any offer or sale of securities. The state statute also provides that the securities commissioner may condition qualification of an offering on the delivery of a disclosure document prior to sale. Would the issuer be making its offering in a state that “provides for registration of the securities and requires the delivery of a disclosure document before sale” if its offering were qualified in this state on the condition that it deliver a disclosure document before sale to each investor?

Answer: Yes. 46

(65) Question: If an issuer is registering securities at the state level, are there any specific requirements as to resales outside of that state if the issuer is attempting to come within the provision in Rule 504 that waives the limitations on the manner of offering and on resale in Rules 502(c) and (d)?

Answer: No. 47 The issuer, however, must intend to use Rule 504 to make bona fide sales in that state and not to evade the policy of Rule 504 by using sales in one state as a conduit for sales into another state. See Preliminary Note 6 to Regulation D.

B. Rule 505

Rule 505 provides an exemption under section 3(b) of the Securities Act for non-investment companies for offerings not in excess of $5,000,000.

(66) Question: An issuer is a broker that was censured pursuant to a Commission order. Does the censure bar the issuer from using Rule 505?

Answer: No. Rule 505 is not available to any issuer who falls within the disqualifications for the use of Regulation A (17 CFR 230.251-.264). See Rule 505(b)(2)(iii). One such disqualification occurs when the issuer is subject to a Commission order under section 15(b) of the Exchange Act. A censure has no continuing force and thus the issuer is not subject to an order of the Commission.

C. Questions Relating to Rules 504 and 505

Both Rules 504(b)(2)(i) and 505(b)(2)(i) require that the offering not exceed a specified aggregate offering price. The allowed aggregate offering price, however, is reduced by the aggregate offering price for all securities sold within the last twelve months in reliance on section 3(b) or in violation of section 5(a) of the Securities Act.

(67) Question: An issuer preparing to conduct an offering of equity securities under Rule 505 raised $2,000,000 from the sale of debt instruments under Rule 505 eight months earlier. How much may the issuer raise in the proposed equity offering?

Answer: $3,000,000. A specific condition to the availability of Rule 505 for the proposed offering is that its aggregate offering price not exceed $5,000,000 less the proceeds for all securities sold under section 3(b) within the last 12 months.

(68) Question: An issuer is planning a Rule 505 offering. Ten months earlier the issuer conducted a Rule 506 offering. Must the issuer consider the previous Rule 506 offering when calculating the allowable aggregate offering price for the proposed Rule 505 offering?

Answer: No. The Commission issued Rule 506 under section 4(2), and Rule 505(b)(2)(i) requires that the aggregate offering price be reduced by previous sales under section 3(b). 48

(69) Question: Seven months before a proposed Rule 504 offering the issuer conducted a rescission offer under Rule 504. The rescission offer was for securities that were sold in violation of section 5 more than 12 months before the proposed Rule 504 offering. Must the aggregate offering price for the proposed Rule 504 offering be reduced either by the amount of the rescission offer or the earlier offering in violation of section 5?

Answer: No. The offering in violation of section 5 took place more than 12 months earlier and thus is not required to be included when satisfying the limitation in Rule 504(b)(2)(i). The staff is of the view that the rescission offer relates back to the earlier offering and therefore should not be included as an adjustment to the aggregate offering price for the proposed Rule 504 offering.

(70) Question: Rules 504 and 505 contain examples as to the calculation of the allowed aggregate offering price for a particular offering. Do these examples contemplate integration of the offerings described?

Answer: No. The examples have been provided to demonstrate the operation of the limitation on the aggregate offering price in the absence of any integration questions.

(71) Question: Note 2 to Rule 504 is not restated in Rule 505. Does the principle of the note apply to Rule 505?

Answer: Yes. Note 2 to Rule 504 sets forth a general principle to the operation of the rule on limiting the aggregate offering price which is the same for both Rules 504 and 505. It provides that if, as a result of one offering, an issuer exceeds the allowed aggregate offering price in a subsequent unintegrated offering, the exemption for the first offering will not be affected.

D. Rule 506

(72) Question: May an issuer of securities with a projected aggregate offering price of $3,000,000 rely on Rule 506?

Answer: Yes. The availability of Rule 506 is not dependent on the dollar size of an offering.

(73) Question: Rule 506 requires that the issuer shall reasonably believe that each purchaser who is not an accredited investor either alone or with a purchaser representative has such knowledge and experience in financial and business matters that he is capable of evaluating the merits and risks of the prospective investment. Former Rule 146 required the issuer to make a similar determination with respect to each offeree. Rule 506 is not an exclusive basis for satisfying the requirements of the private offering exemption in section 4(2). See Preliminary Note 3 to Regulation D. What is the Commission’s view of the relevance of the nature of the offerees in an offering that relies exclusively on section 4(2) as its basis for exemption from registration?

Answer: Clearly, in an offering relying exclusively on section 4(2) for an exemption from registration, all offerees who purchase must possess the requisite level of sophistication. The sophistication of each of those to whom the securities are offered who do not purchase is not a fact that in and of itself should determine mechanically the availability of the exemption; the number and the nature of the offerees, however, are relevant in determining whether an issuer has engaged in a general solicitation or general advertising that would preclude reliance on the exemption in section 4(2).

E. Questions Relating to Rules 504-506

(74) Question: If an issuer relies on one exemption, but later realizes that exemption may not have been made available, may it rely on another exemption after the fact?

Answer: Yes, assuming the offering met the conditions of the new exemption. No one exemption is exclusive of another.

(75) Question: May foreign issuers use Regulation D?

Answer: Yes. Recent amendments to Regulation D have clarified the disclosure requirements for foreign issuers. 49

(76) Question: Is Regulation D available to an underwriter for the sale of securities acquired in a firm commitment offering?

Answer: No. As Preliminary Note 4 indicates, Regulation D is available only to the issuer of the securities and not to any affiliate of that issuer or to any other person for resales of the issuer’s securities. See also Rule 502(d) which limits the resale of Regulation D securities.

(77) Question: Regulation T (12 CFR 220.1-.8) of the Federal Reserve Board imposes certain restrictions on brokers and dealers for the use of credit in the purchase of securities. Regulation T provides an exemption from those provisions for the arrangement of credit in a sale of securities that is exempt from the registration requirements of the Securities Act under section 4(2). See 12 CFR 220.7(g). What is the applicability of this provision to offerings conducted under Regulation D?

Answer: Regulation T is interpreted by the Federal Reserve Board which has expressed the view that the exemption from Regulation T in 12 CFR 220.7(a) is available for offerings conducted in reliance on Rules 505 and 506, 50 but not for those under 504. 51

(78) Question: A corporation proposes to implement an employee stock option plan for key employees. Can the issuer rely on Regulation D for an exemption from registration for the issuance of securities under the plan?

Answer: The corporation may use Regulation D for the sale of its securities under the plan to the extent that such offering complies with Regulation D. In a typical plan, the grant of the options will not be deemed a sale of a security for purposes of the Securities Act. The issuer, therefore, will be seeking an exemption for the issuance of the stock underlying the options. The offering of this stock generally will commence when the options become exercisable and will continue until the options are exercised or otherwise terminated. Where the key employees involved are directors or executive officers, such individuals will be accredited investors under Rule 501(a)(4) if they purchase securities through the exercise of their options. Other key employees may be accredited as a result of net worth or income under Rules 501(a)(6) or (a)(7).

(79) Question: In an “all or none” or minimum-maximum Regulation D offering of interests in a limited partnership, the general partner proposes, if necessary, to purchase enough interests for the issuer to sell a specified level of interests by the specified expiration date of the offering. What disclosure and other considerations are relevant?

Answer: The staff is of the view that pursuant to Rule 10b-9 under the Exchange Act, the issuer must disclose the possibility that the general partner may make purchases of the limited partnership interests in order to meet the specified minimum. In addition, the issuer should disclose the maximum amount of the possible purchases. Finally, these purchases must be for investment and not resale. Questions regarding these views should be directed to the Division of Market Regulation, Office of Trading Practices, (202) 272-2874.

(80) Question: An issuer will conduct a Regulation D offering on an “all or none” basis within a specified time. What considerations are there for the issuer if it wishes to extend the offering beyond the specified time in order to sell the specified amount of securities? Answer: The staff is of the view that an offering may be extended beyond the specified time without resulting in a violation of Rule 10b-9 under the Exchange Act or, in the case of an offering in which a broker-dealer is a participant, Rule 15c2-4 under the Exchange Act, under the following conditions:

a. Prior to the specified expiration date, a reconfirmation offer must be made to all subscribers that discloses the extension of the offering and any other material information necessary to update previously provided disclosure.

b. The reconfirmation offer must be structured so that the subscriber affirmatively elects to continue his investment and so that those subscribers who take no affirmative action will have their funds returned to them.

c. The reconfirmation offer must be made far enough in advance of the specified expiration date so that any subscriber who does not elect to continue his investment will have his funds returned to him promptly after the specified expiration date.

Questions regarding these views should be directed to the Division of Market Regulation, Office of Trading Practices, (202) 272-2874.

V. Notice of Sale–Form D

Rule 503 requires the issuer to file a notice of sale on Form D. The notice must be filed not later than 15 days after the first sale, every six months thereafter, and no later than 30 days after the last sale. 52

(81) Question: Where can an issuer obtain copies of Form D and where must the form be filed?

Answer: Form D is available through the Public Reference Branch of the Commission’s main office, 450 5th Street, N.W., Washington, D.C. 20549, (202)272-7460, or any of its regional or branch offices. The form should be filed at the Commission’s main office. There is no filing fee.

(82) Question: In a minimum-maximum offering where subscription funds are held in escrow pending receipt of minimum subscriptions, when is the first Form D required to be filed?

Answer: In the context of Rule 503, the first sale takes place upon receipt of the first subscription agreement and the deposit of the first funds into escrow. The issuer, therefore, should file its first Form D not later than 15 days after the receipt of the first subscription agreement.

(83) Question: An issuer conducting a minimum-maximum offering has received subscriptions for the minimum number of interests needed to form the limited partnership. Subsequent to closing and formation of the partnership, the issuer continues to offer interests. After two months in which no sales take place, the issuer decides to terminate the offering. Because more than 30 days have elapsed since the last sale, how can the issuer comply with Rule 503 in the filing of its final Form D?

Answer: The staff is of the view that a final Form D may be filed not later than 30 days after the last sale or after the termination of the offering, whichever occurs later.

(84) Question: In an employee stock option plan, when would the first and last Form D be filed?

Answer: The first Form D should be filed not later than 15 days after the exercise of the first option. The final Form D would be due not later than 30 days after the exercise or expiration of the last outstanding option, whichever occurs later.

(85) Question: An issuer commences a Regulation D offering and files an original Form D not later than 15 days after the first sale. Subsequently, because no further sales are made, the issuer returns the money to the one investor and terminates the offering. How should the issuer reflect the unsuccessful offering on its Form D?

Answer: The issuer should file a final Form D indicating zero sales, investors, and proceeds.

(86) Question: If the issuer is a limited partnership, who would be considered the chief executive officer for purposes of Form D questions?

Answer: The chief executive officer of a limited partnership is that individual who fulfills the function of chief executive officer. That individual may be the chief executive officer of a corporate general partner.

(87) Question: What is a Standard Industrial Classification (C”) and where is it obtained?

Answer: The SIC is a code associated with a particular economic activity. The SIC system, developed by the Bureau of the Census under the auspices of the Office of Management and Budget, is used in classification of establishments by the type of activities in which they are engaged. An issuer’s SIC can be found in the Standard Industrial Classification Manual, a publication of the U.S. Government that may be obtained from the Superintendent of Documents and is generally available in public and university libraries.

(88) Question: Question 8 of Part A asks for the issuer’s CUSIP number. What is a CUSIP number?

Answer: CUSIP 53 is the trademark for a system that identifies specific security issuers and their classes of securities. Under the CUSIP plan, a CUSIP number is permanently assigned to each class and will identify that class and no other Generally, a CUSIP number will be assigned only to a class for which there is a secondary trading market. The operation of the CUSIP numbering system is controlled by the CUSIP Board of Trustees which awarded a contract to Standard & Poor’s Corporation to function as the CUSIP Service Bureau, the operational arm of the system. Issuers relying on Regulation D that do not have a class of securities with a secondary trading market and thus do not have a CUSIP number should answer Question 8 in the negative.

(89) Question: Part B of Form D requests statistical information about the issuer. In an offering of interests in a limited partnership to be formed, how should this part be answered?

Answer: The answers to Part B should be with respect to the partnership to be formed and will be zero or “not applicable.” This will reflect the statistical profile of a start-up issuer.

(90) Question: Question 2 to Part C requests certain information as to the number of accredited and non-accredited investors in a Rule 505 or 506 offering. Must an issuer make a finding as to accredited investors even if the issuer is not relying on the accredited investor concept in its offering?

Answer: No. Where an issuer under Rule 505 or 506 is not relying on the accredited investor concept for all or certain investors, it should treat those investors as non-accredited for purposes of this question.

(91) Question: Questions 5 and 6 to Part C request certain information regarding the offering expenses and the use of proceeds. May the issuer attach a separate schedule listing expenses and use of proceeds in lieu of completing these questions?

Answer: No. The Form D has been formulated for keypunching and entry of the information into an automatic data storage system. Failure to complete the questions on the form in the space provided frustrates the objectives of the form.

(92) Question: May the Form D be signed by the issuer’s attorney?

Answer: Form D may be signed on behalf of the issuer by anyone who is duly authorized.

FOOTNOTES:

n1 Prior releases leading to the adoption of Regulation D included Release No. 33-6274 (December 23, 1980) (46 FR 2631) in which the Commission considered and requested comments on various exemptions under the Securities Act and Release No. 33-6339 (August 7, 1981) (46 FR 41791) in which the Commission published proposed Regulation D for comment.

n2 The term also is essential to the operation of section 4(6) of the Securities Act which exempts certain transactions involving sales solely to accredited investors. The definition of accredited investor for section 4(6) is found at section 2(15) of the Securities Act and Rule 215 (17 CFR 230.321). Rule 501(a) combines and repeats those provisions. As a result, interpretations regarding the definition of “accredited investor” in Regulation D also apply to the definition of that term under section 4(6).

n3 Preliminary Note 6 to Regulation D would support a different analysis if it could be shown that the director’s appointment or resignation was “part of a plan or scheme to evade the registration provisions of the Act.”

n4 Rule 501(a)(1) refers to “any bank as defined in section 3(a)(2) of the Act.” Section 3(a)(2) provides that the term “bank” includes “any national bank.” Section 3(a)(2) also provides that where a common or collective trust fund is involved, the term “bank” has the same meaning as in the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Investment Company Act”) (15 U.S.C. 80a-1-80a-65 (1976 & Supp. IV 1980)). Section 2(a)(5) of the Investment Company Act defines “bank.”

n5 See letter re Voluntary Hospitals of America, Inc. dated November 30, 1982.

n6 See letter re Voluntary Hospitals of America, Inc. dated September 10, 1982.

n7 See Question 37.

n8 Section 2(2) of the Securities Act includes corporations and partnerships within the definition of “person.”

n9 See letter re Intuit Telecom Inc. dated March 24, 1982.

n10 See letter to Kim R. Clark, Esq. dated November 8, 1982.

n11 See letter to Kim R. Clark, Esq. dated November 8, 1982.

n12 See letter re Winthrop Financial Co., Inc. dated May 25, 1982.

n13 Note that this $50,000 is not deemed to be “an unconditional obligation to pay” and cannot be included in calculating whether or not the investor meets the $150,000 purchase test of Rule 501(a)(5). See Question 10.

n14 See letter to Lola M. Hale, Esq. dated July 1, 1982.

n15 See letter re Smith Barney, Harris Upham & Co. dated July 14, 1982.

n16 See 17 CFR 230.405 for the definition of “totally held subsidiary.”

n17 See letter re Federated Financial Corporation dated May 13, 1982.

n18 Section 2(2) of the Securities Act includes “a trust” within the definition of “person” but limits that inclusion to “a trust where the interest or interests of the beneficiary or beneficiaries are evidenced by a security.” The Division does not view that limitation as being necessary in the context of a trust as a purchaser of securities under Rule 501(a)(5).

n19 The result would also be different in the case of a business trust, a real estate investment trust, or other similar entities.

n20 See letter re Rule 501(a)(8) of Regulation D dated July 16, 1982.

n21 The basis for a limitation on the aggregate offering price derives from section 3(b) of the Securities Act. Section 3(b) accords authority to the Commission to adopt rules exempting any class of securities as long as no issue of securities is exempted “where the aggregate amount at which such issue is offered to the public exceeds $5,000,000.” See also section 4(6) which exempts a transaction involving offers and sales solely to one or more accredited investors “if the aggregate offering price of an issue” does not exceed the amount allowed under section 3(b).

n22 This presumes that the payments are in fact for interest. See Preliminary Note 6 to Regulation D.

n23 See letter to Kim R. Clark, Esq. dated November 8, 1982.

n24 See letters to Winstead, McGuire, Sechrest & Trimble dated February 21 and 25, 1975 and re Kenisa Oil Company dated April 6, 1982. Questions regarding registration as a broker-dealer should be directed to the Office of Chief Counsel, Division of Market Regulation, (202) 272-2844. Questions regarding registration as an investment adviser should be directed to the Office of Chief Counsel, Division of Investment Management, (202) 272-2030.

n25 Note 3 to Rule 501(h) points out that disclosure of a material relationship between the purchaser representative and the issuer will not relieve the purchaser representative of the obligation to act in the interest of the purchaser.

n26 As noted in Preliminary Note 1, Regulation D transactions are exempt from the registration requirements of the Securities Act, not the antifraud provisions. Thus, nothing in Regulation D states that an issuer need not give disclosure to an investor. Rather, the regulation provides that in certain instances the exemptions from registration will not be conditioned on a particular content, format or method of disclosure.

n27 An issuer is subject to section 13 reporting obligations if it has a class of securities registered under section 12 of the Exchange Act. An issuer is subject to section 15(d) reporting obligations if it has had a Securities Act registration statement go effective, or if in any year after the year of effectiveness, it has at least 300 holders of the class of securities to which the registration statement applied. In the latter instance, however, even if the issuer has 300 or more shareholders, it may not be subject to section 15(d) reporting obligations if it has had less than 500 shareholders and less than $3,000,000 in assets during the last three years. See Rule 15d-6 (17 CFR 240.15d-6) under the Exchange Act.

n28 See 17 CFR 239.28. Form S-18 is an abbreviated registration form for certain offerings not exceeding $5,000,000. The form is not available to issuers that report under the Exchange Act.

n29 Rules 502(b)(2)(i)(C) and 502(b)(2)(ii)(D) contain special provisions for foreign issuers recently adopted by the Commission. See Release No. 33-6437 (November 19, 1982) (47 FR 54764).

n30 The Commission adopted 53 Securities Act Guides in 1968 (Release No. 33-4936 (December 9, 1968) (33 FR 18617)) and 10 additional ones subsequently. The Guides served as an expression of the policies and practices of the Division of Corporation Finance. Most of those Guides have been incorporated into Regulation C (17 CFR 230.400-.494) and Regulation S-K (17 CFR 229.10-.802) (see Release No. 33-6383 (March 3, 1982) (47 FR 11380)) and thus were rescinded (see Release No. 33-6384 (March 3, 1982) (47 FR 11476)). Five of the Guides applicable to specific industries were not rescinded, however, and were redesignated. Guide 5, which was Guide 60, applies to the preparation of registration statement relating to interests in real estate limited partnerships. Guide 5 was revised in Release No. 33-6405 (June 3, 1982) (47 FR 25140).

n31 Form S-18 has been amended recently to permit its use by limited partnerships. Release No. 33-6406 (June 4, 1982) (47 FR 25126).

n32 The same general rule would be applicable to an offering in excess of $5,000,000. See Release No. SAB-40, Topic 6.D.3.d. (January 23, 1981).

n33 The parallel to this instruction under other forms of registration is Rule 3-14 of Regulation S-X (17 CFR 210.3-14). Rule 3-14 requires income statements for the three most recent fiscal years, unless the issuer meets certain conditions, in which case the issuer need present only one year of audited income statements.

n34 See letter re Winthrop Financial Co., Inc. dated May 25, 1982. In response to inquiries regarding the appropriateness of tax basis financial statements, issuers should refer to Statement on Auditing Standards No. 14, Special Reports, American Institute of Certified Public Accountants, December 1976.

n35 The issuer should refer to Rule 3-05 of Regulation S-X (17 CFR 210.3-05) for the disclosure guidelines on businesses to be acquired. If the offering were for less than $5,000,000 and the issuer were thus referring to Form S-18, Item 21(d) of that form provides a parallel rule on businesses to be acquired.

n36 See letter re Walnut Valley Special Cable TV Fund dated May 13, 1982.

n37 This provision is similar to that found in former Rule 146 at paragraph (e)(1)(ii)(c).

n38 See letters to Hecker & Phillips dated December 22, 1982 and Hopper, Kanouff, Smith and Peryam dated September 10, 1982.

n39 See Release No. 33-6253 (October 28, 1980) (45 FR 72644); letters re Security Bancorp, Inc. dated January 21, 1980 and Kearney Plaza Company dated March 8, 1979.

n40 The Note to Rule 502(a) also points out that certain foreign offerings are not integrated with domestic exempt offerings.

n41 Rule 502(a), however, does not provide a safe harbor to the possible integration of offering (C) with either offering (A) or (B). In resolving that question, the issuer should consider the factors listed in the Note to Rule 502(a).

n42 The Note to Rule 501(e) provides that the issuer must satisfy all other conditions of Regulation D with respect to purchasers that have been excluded from the count. Thus, for instance, the issuer would have to ensure the sophistication of the first cousin under Rule 506(b)(2)(ii).

n43 See Release No. 33-4708 (July 9, 1964) (29 FR 828), Preliminary Note 7 to Regulation D and Note to Rule 502(a).

n44 See letter re Madison Partners Ltd. 1982-1 dated January 18, 1982. See also letter re Kenai Oil & Gas, Inc. dated April 27, 1979.

n45 The Division is of the view that the provision in Rules 504 and 505 that bars an investment company from using the exemptions should be construed to mean an investment company as that term is defined in section 3 of the Investment Company Act.

n46 See letter to Geraldine D. Green dated November 22, 1982.

n47 See letter re Freeport Resources, Inc. dated December 9, 1982.

n48 Note that under Rule 502(a) these offerings may not have to be integrated because they are separated by six months.

n49 See Release No. 33-6437 (November 19, 1982) (47 FR 54764).

n50 Letters from Laura Homer Securities Credit Officer, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System to Ardith Eymann, Esq., Chief Counsel, Division of Market Regulation, Securities and Exchange Commission (April 10, 1982) and to Mrs. Mary E. T. Beach, Associate Director, Securities and Exchange Commission (January 8, 1982).

n51 Letter from Laura Homer, Securities Credit Officer, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System to Alan G. Rosenberg, Esq. (May 20, 1982).

n52 A Form D is also required to be filed in connection with an offering conducted pursuant to section 4(6). See 17 CFR 239.500.

n53 The acronym “CUSIP” derives from the title of the American Banker’s Association committee that developed the CUSIP system–Committee on Uniform Security Identification Procedures.